所屬科目：研究所、轉學考(插大)◆生化暨分子生物學
1. Which of the following is NOT a distinctive property of living systems? (A) Living organisms exhibit a high level of organization. (B) Biological structures are related to specific functions. (C) Living systems have the capacity for reproduction. (D) Living systems do not carry out energy transformation.
2. Energy and materials are consumed by organisms primarily to: (A) Increase entropy within the cell. (B) Maintain stability and internal order. (C) Eliminate all metabolic by-products. (D) Promote interaction with the environment.
3. Which additional element distinguishes amino acids from carbohydrates? (A) Phosphorus (B) Nitrogen (C) Oxygen (D) Hydrogen
4. What property makes carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur, and phosphorus especially suitable for biological molecules? (A) Their ability to form ionic bonds in water (B) Their high atomic mass (C) Their capacity to form stable covalent bonds (D) Their radioactive properties
5. Which type of interaction is LEAST involved in biomolecular recognition? (A) Covalent bond (B) Hydrogen bonding (C) Ionic interactions (D) Hydrophobic interactions
6. Which property of water is LEAST related to its solvent properties? (A) High dielectric constant (B) Polarity of the water molecule (C) High specific heat capacity (D) Ability to form hydrogen bonds
7. Water can dissolve nonionic polar molecules, such as sugars, because: (A) Water forms covalent bonds with them (B) Water has a high dielectric constant (C) Water disrupts all intermolecular forces (D) Water can form hydrogen bonds with them
8. A solution has a pH of 5. How does its hydrogen ion concentration compare to that of a solution with a pH of 7? (A) 10 times greater (B) 100 times greater (C) 1,000 times greater (D) None of the above
9. Which statement best describes an acid with a larger Ka value? (A) It dissociates less in water (B) It is a stronger weak acid (C) It has a higher pH at the same concentration (D) It produces fewer hydrogen ions
10. Which change will decrease the pH of a weak acid solution? (A) Increasing Ka (B) Decreasing Ka (C) Decreasing the concentration of the acid (D) Diluting the solution with water
11. Understanding energy flow requires knowledge of systems, heat, and work. What type of system do living cells belong to? (A) Isolated system (B) Adiabatic system (C) Open system (D) Closed system
12. Which of the following is NOT a bioenergetic characteristic of biological systems? (A) Exchange of energy between a system and its surroundings occurs as either heat or work. (B) Heat is a useful energy source for cells. (C) Work is the use of energy to drive a process other than heat flow. (D) Temperature, pressure, and volume of the system are essentially constant during biological reactions.
13. Which equation correctly describes the relationship between free energy (G), enthalpy (H), entropy (S), and temperature (T)? (A) ΔG=ΔH+TΔS (B) ΔG=TΔH−ΔS (C) ΔG=ΔH−TΔS (D) ΔG=ΔS−TΔH
14. Based upon the following reactions, what is the ΔG°' for the formation of ATP from phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) and ADP? (A) −97.9 kJ/mol (B) −26.5 kJ/mol (C) +26.5 kJ/mol (D) +97.9 kJ/mol
15. Which parameter indicates that a system tends to proceed from an organized to a more disordered state? (A) ΔS ＞ 0 (B) ΔS ＜ 0 (C) ΔH ＞ 0 (D) ΔH ＜ 0
16. Which type of amino acid is positively charged at physiological pH? (A) Nonpolar amino acids (B) Polar, uncharged amino acids (C) Acidic amino acids (D) Basic amino acids
17. Uncommon amino acids are often formed by post-translational modification because they: (A) Cannot be synthesized by cells (B) Provide specialized functional or regulatory roles (C) Are more stable than common amino acids (D) Are required for all proteins
18. What is the pH of a glycine solution in which the α-NH3+ group is one-third dissociated? (Given: pKa of α-COOH = 2.3; pKa of α-NH3+= 9.6) (A) 9.3 (B) 9.7 (C) 10.1 (D) 10.5
19. Which of the following amino acids does not absorb UV light? (A) Phenylalanine (B) Tyrosine (C) Glycine (D) Tryptophan
20. Aspartic acid has pKa values of 2.1, 3.9, and 9.8. Calculate the isoelectric point (pI) of aspartic acid. (A) 3.0 (B) 3.9 (C) 5.0 (D) 8.9
21. The regular folding patterns stabilized mainly by hydrogen bonding between backbone atoms, such as α-helices and β-sheets, define the _____ structure of proteins. (A) primary (B) secondary (C) tertiary (D) quaternary
22. Protein three-dimensional structural information is most commonly stored in which file format? (A) FASTA (B) GenBank (C) PDB (D) BLAST
23. Which protein separation technique primarily exploits differences in molecular size? (A) Salting out (B) Ion-exchange chromatography (C) Affinity chromatography (D) Gel filtration chromatography
24. Which of the following represents the correct order of steps in protein sequencing? I. Identify N- and C-termini II. Cleave disulfide bonds III. Separate chains IV. Cleave into fragments V. Repeat cleavage with different method VI. Reconstruct sequence (A) I, II, III, IV, VI, V (B) III, I, IV, II, V, VI (C) III, II, I, IV, V, VI (D) IV, I, III, V, VI, II
25. In proteomics, proteins are first separated by isoelectric point and then by molecular weight using: (A) Western blotting (B) Two-dimensional gel electrophoresis (C) Native PAGE (D) Size-exclusion chromatography
26. The following statements regarding enzymes are correct, EXCEPT: (A) All enzymes are proteins. (B) Enzymes lower the activation energy of biochemical reactions. (C) Enzyme specificity can arise from molecular recognition based on structural complementarity. (D) The activation energy (Ea) is the energy required to raise reactants to the transition state.
27. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? (A) Increasing the activation energy (Ea) increases the reaction rate. (B) An increase in temperature decreases the activation energy (Ea). (C) The Arrhenius equation is k = ΔG / RT. (D) The Arrhenius equation describes the relationship between the rate constant (k), activation energy (Ea), and temperature (T).
28. According to the Michaelis-Menten equation, Vo = [S] (Vmax) / ([S] + Km), a high Km value for an enzyme-substrate pair indicates: (A) The enzyme has a high specificity for the substrate. (B) The enzyme works at maximum rate even at low substrate concentration. (C) The enzyme is saturated at very low substrate concentration. (D) The enzyme has a low affinity for the substrate.
29. Which kinetic change is expected during noncompetitive inhibition? (A) Increased Vmax with unchanged Km (B) Increased Km with unchanged Vmax (C) Decreased Vmax with unchanged Km (D) Decreased Km with decreased Vmax
30. In the presence of increasing concentrations of succinate, the inhibitory effect of malonate on succinate dehydrogenase can be reduced. This observation indicates that malonate is a(n): (A) Uncompetitive inhibitor (B) Competitive inhibitor (C) Noncompetitive inhibitor (D) Irreversible inhibitor
31. Which of the following is NOT a function of biological membranes? (A) Maintenance of electrochemical gradients (B) Reproduction (C) Replication of DNA (D) Transport of ions and metabolites
32. Which statement BEST describes the fluid mosaic model of biological membranes? (A) Membranes are rigid structures composed of fixed proteins. (B) Membranes consist of a phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins that can move laterally. (C) Membranes are composed only of lipids arranged in a mosaic pattern. (D) Membrane proteins freely diffuse between different cellular membranes.
33. The plasma membrane is richer in cholesterol compared to mitochondrial membranes mainly because: (A) Cholesterol increases membrane rigidity and stability required for cell-environment interactions. (B) Cholesterol is synthesized only in the plasma membrane. (C) Mitochondria cannot incorporate lipids. (D) Cholesterol enhances ATP synthesis directly.
34. Which statement correctly distinguishes peripheral (extrinsic) membrane proteins from integral (intrinsic) membrane proteins? (A) Peripheral proteins contain only hydrophobic amino acids. (B) Integral proteins can be removed without disrupting the membrane. (C) Peripheral proteins associate more tightly with the membrane than integral proteins. (D) Integral proteins span the lipid bilayer, whereas peripheral proteins do not.
35. What is the main principle behind using a hydropathy plot to analyze membrane protein topology? (A) It identifies charged amino acids involved in active sites. (B) It detects regions of high secondary structure content. (C) It identifies hydrophobic regions that span lipid bilayers. (D) It predicts post-translational modification sites.
36. Which domain of an ion channel protein is primarily responsible for determining which ions can pass through the channel? (A) Voltage-sensing domain (B) Selectivity filter (C) Ligand-binding domain (D) Cytoplasmic regulatory domain
37. Which of the following can serve as an energy source for active transport across biological membranes? (A) ATP hydrolysis (B) Light energy (C) Ion concentration gradient (D) All of the above
38. Bacteriorhodopsin contributes to cellular energy production in Halobacterium halobium by: (A) Direct synthesis of ATP (B) Transporting electrons across the plasma membrane (C) Generating a proton gradient using light energy (D) Importing glucose into the cell
39. Carrier proteins responsible for drug resistance primarily function by: (A) Metabolizing drugs into inactive forms (B) Blocking drug entry into the cell (C) Sequestering drugs inside lysosomes (D) Actively exporting drugs out of the cell using energy
40. P-glycoprotein, a key protein involved in cancer drug resistance, belongs to which transporter family? (A) ATP-binding cassette (ABC) transporters (B) Proton-dependent antiporters (C) Secondary active transporters (D) Ligand-gated channels
41. The following statements about the DNA molecule are correct, EXCEPT: (A) DNA is a double-stranded helix composed of antiparallel strands. (B) DNA is synthesized in the 5'→3' direction. (C) DNA contains ribose sugar in its backbone. (D) The backbone of DNA consists of sugar and phosphate groups.
42. Based on Chargaff's data, if a DNA sample contains 30% guanine, what is the percentage of adenine? (A) 20% (B) 30% (C) 40% (D) 60%
43. Which strand of DNA will form the MOST STABLE double-stranded DNA duplex? (A) pGACTTCAAAATAT (B) pGACTTCGACTCG (C) pGACTTCCGAT (D) pGACTTCAAATGC
44. The stability of double-stranded DNA primarily arises from which two non-covalent interactions? (A) Hydrogen bonding and ionic interactions (B) Covalent phosphodiester bonding and hydrogen bonding (C) Van der Waals forces and disulfide bonds (D) Hydrogen bonding and base-stacking interactions
45. Which of the following is TRUE when comparing DNA and RNA? (A) RNA is generally single-stranded, allowing diverse secondary structures (B) DNA contains uracil, whereas RNA contains thymine (C) RNA is more chemically stable than DNA due to the lack of a 2'-OH group (D) DNA is primarily found in the nucleus, while RNA is found only in the cytoplasm
46. Which feature allows transcription and translation to be coupled in prokaryotes but not in eukaryotes? (A) Presence of ribosomes in the nucleus (B) Absence of a nuclear membrane in prokaryotes (C) Use of different start codons in prokaryotes (D) Presence of introns in prokaryotic genes
47. Alternative splicing is especially important in higher eukaryotes because it: (A) Allows simultaneous transcription and translation (B) Eliminates introns from all genes (C) Enables tissue-specific and developmental-stage-specific protein expression (D) Ensures that all mRNAs encode functional proteins
48. Which process requires both the 5' cap and the poly-A tail for optimal efficiency? (A) DNA replication (B) RNA splicing (C) Transcription elongation (D) Translation initiation
49. What does it mean that the genetic code is "redundant"? (A) More than one codon can specify the same amino acid (B) Each codon can specify more than one amino acid (C) Codons are read in overlapping groups (D) The same codon has different meanings in different organisms
50. Which of the following codons functions as a stop codon in translation, and what amino acid does it encode? (A) UGG; tryptophan (B) UAA; leucine (C) UGA; no amino acid (D) AUG; methionine
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(A) −97.9 kJ/mol (B) −26.5 kJ/mol (C) +26.5 kJ/mol (D) +97.9 kJ/mol