16. Which limitation applies to Koch's postulates?
(A) Some pathogens cannot be cultured
(B) They cannot be used for bacteria
(C) They require genetic sequencing
(D) They apply only to viruses
(E) They exclude animal models

17. Which factor most limits the usefulness of fluorescence microscopy for long-term live-cell imaging? (A) Low numerical aperture (B) Requirement for thin specimens (C) Photobleaching and phototoxicity (D) Inability to label proteins (E) Low magnification

18. Which of the following sentence best describes why viruses are considered necessary intracellular pathogens? (A) They can reproduce independently, but they tend to replicate faster inside cells. (B) They lack ribosomes and mitochondria and must hijack host machinery to make new virions. (C) They reproduce only through cell division and require host nutrients for energy. (D) They are always larger than bacteria, so they must use host cells for transport. (E) They can replicate their genome outside cells but require cells only for entry.

19. Which pairing correctly matches "recognition and attachment" for naked vs. enveloped viruses? (A) Naked: glycoprotein spikes; Enveloped: capsid proteins. (B) Naked: host antibodies; Enveloped: host ribosomes. (C) Naked: capsid proteins; Enveloped: viral glycoproteins (spikes). (D) Naked: MHC class I; Enveloped: MHC class II. (E) Naked: RNA polymerase; Enveloped: DNA polymerase.

20. A student describes a viral particle as "genome enclosed in capsid." Which term is the most precise match? (A) Capsomer. (B) Virion envelope. (C) Micelle. (D) Nucleocapsid. (E) Glycoprotein spike.

21. You run flow cytometry on lymphocytes to identify T cells. Which marker strategy best matches the samples? (A) Identify T cells by CD16 and CD56 positivity. (B) Identify T cells by CD4 and CD8. (C) Identify helper T cells by MHC class I expression. (D) Identify cytotoxic T cells by MHC class II expression. (E) Identify all lymphocytes by TCR only; CD markers are not used.

22. Which sentence best describes the primary vs. secondary antibody response to a viral antigen? (A) Primary response produces high-affinity IgG first; secondary response produces IgM only. (B) Primary response is rapid and strong because memory B cells activate immediately. (C) Primary response produces IgM first (lower affinity) and IgG later (higher affinity). (D) Primary and secondary responses are identical in timing and strength. (E) Secondary response is weaker because antibodies suppress memory B-cell activation.

23. Which description most closely matches the basic genome and structure type of Coronaviruses? (A) Small, non-enveloped viruses with segmented negative-sense ssRNA. (B) Small, enveloped viruses with negative-sense ssRNA and a helical capsid only. (C) Large, non-enveloped viruses with double-stranded DNA. (D) Medium-sized, enveloped viruses with segmented double-stranded RNA. (E) Large, enveloped viruses with positive-sense single-stranded RNA

24. Which combination correctly describes influenza virus classification and key structural and genomic features? (A) Paramyxoviridae; nonsegmented positive-sense ssRNA; no envelope glycoproteins. (B) Orthomyxoviridae; segmented negative-sense ssRNA; envelope glycoproteins HA and NA. (C) Flaviviridae; segmented dsRNA; envelope glycoproteins M and E. (D) Retroviridae; negative-sense ssRNA with reverse transcriptase; capsule proteins H and N. (E) Coronaviridae; segmented positive-sense ssRNA; envelope glycoproteins HA and NA.

25. A recovered patient is re-exposed to the same virus months later. Which sentence best describes the secondary response? (A) Rapid activation of memory B cells, leading to high IgG concentrations. (B) Slower and weaker than the primary response because memory cells suppress immunity. (C) IgM is always higher than IgG due to lack of class switching. (D) No antibody response occurs because the virus is cleared by fever alone. (E) Only innate immunity is involved; adaptive immunity does not respond.

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