17. Which of the following is responsible for cholesterol transport to the liver?
(A) HDL
(B) Chylomicron
(C) VLDL
(D) IDL

18. Which of the following is an example of an epimer pair? (A) Glucose and fructose (B) Glucose and mannose (C) Lactose and maltose (D) Lactose and fructose

19. Which of the following processes do not all occur in the mitochondria of mammalian cells? (A) Fatty acid biosynthesis & TCA cycle (B) DNA synthesis & TCA cycle (C) TCA cycle & oxidative phosphorylation (D) -oxidation of fatty acids & DNA synthesis

20. Which histone modification is most commonly associated with heterochromatin formation? (A)H3K4 trimethylation (B)H3K9 trimethylation (C)H3K27 acetylation (D)H2A.Z incorporation

21. In prokaryotes, the sigma factor is essential for promoter recognition. Which eukaryotic factor performs the most analogous role? (A) TFIIB (B) TFIIH (C) TATA-binding protein (TBP) (D) Mediator complex

22. Which statement best explains why eukaryotic enhancers can regulate transcription from promoters located thousands of base pairs away? (A) Enhancers encode small RNAs that migrate to the promoter (B) Enhancer–promoter communication occurs via DNA looping mediated by coactivator proteins (C) Enhancers move within the nucleus to physically bind the promoter (D) Enhancers are transcribed into mRNA that recruits RNA polymerase II

23. Which element is present in most prokaryotic promoters but not required in eukaryotic RNA Pol II promoters? (A) Pribnow box sequence (B) TATA box (C) Initiator (Inr) element (D) CAAT box

24. Which component of the CRISPR‑Cas9 system determines the specific genomic DNA target? (A) Cas9 nuclease (B) PAM sequence (C) tracrRNA alone (D) Single‑guide RNA (sgRNA)

25. A deficiency in Glucose‑6‑phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) is most likely to impair which cellular process? (A) Beta‑oxidation of fatty acids (B) Regeneration of reduced glutathione (C) Synthesis of fructose‑6‑phosphate (D) Glycogen breakdown

26. During intense exercise, lactate production increases primarily because: (A) Oxygen availability is high (B) Pyruvate dehydrogenase is activated (C) NAD⁺ regeneration is required to maintain glycolysis (D) Lactate dehydrogenase is inhibited

27. Which statement best describes the primary function of the oxidative phase of the pentose phosphate pathway? (A) Production of ribulose‑5‑phosphate without generating NADPH (B) Conversion of pentose sugars into triose phosphates (C) Generation of NADPH and ribulose‑5‑phosphate (D) Production of ATP through substrate‑level phosphorylation

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