45. Which of the following genes establishes the overall anterior-posterior axis of the embryo?
(A) bicoid gene
(B) gap genes
(C) pair-rule genes
(D) segment-polarity genes
(E) homeotic genes

46. The yolk sac of humans ______. (A) stores nutrients to support the developing embryo (B) is evidence of humans' relationship to egg-laying vertebrates (C) secretes HCG (D) absorbs nutrients from, and releases waste to, the mother's blood (E) envelops the developing fetus

47. What is the function of the polar bodies that are produced during oogenesis? (A) They are the mechanism that allows for the shedding of excess cytoplasm during the production of a haploid ovum. (B) They are the mechanism that allows for the shedding of excess nutrients during the production of a haploid ovum. (C) They are the mechanism that allows for the shedding of excess genetic material during the production of a haploid ovum. (D) They are the mechanism that allows for the shedding of excess mitochondria during the production of a haploid ovum. (E) They are the mechanism that allows for streamlining of the ovum so as to facilitate the penetration of an ovum by a sperm.

48. Which of the following effects could result from activation of the sympathetic nervous system? (A) decreased blood pressure (B) decreased heart rate (C) decreased rate of digestion (D) constriction of the bronchi (E) decreased rate of breathing

49. The clonal selection theory implies that (A) related people have similar immune responses. (B) antigens activate specific lymphocytes. (C)only certain cells can produce interferon. (D) memory cells are present at birth. (E) the body selects which antigens it will respond to.

50. A transfusion of type A blood given to a person who has type O blood would result in (A) the recipient's B antigens reacting with the donated anti-B antibodies. (B) the recipient's anti-A antibodies clumping the donated red blood cells. (C) the recipient's anti-A and anti-O antibodies reacting with the donated red blood cells if the donor was a heterozygote (Ai) for blood type. (D) no reaction because type O is a universal donor. (E) no reaction because the O-type individual does not have antibodies.

51. Why can normal immune responses be described as polyclonal? (A) Blood contains many different antibodies to many different antigens. (B) Construction of a hybridoma requires multiple types of cells. (C) Multiple immunoglobulins are produced from descendants of a single B cell. (D) Diverse antibodies are produced for different epitopes of a specific antigen. (E) Macrophages, T cells, and B cells all are involved in normal immune response.

52. There are 61 mRNA codons that specify an amino acid, but only 45 tRNAs. This is best explained by the fact that (A) some tRNAs have anticodons that recognize two or more different codons. (B) the rules for base pairing between the third base of a codon and tRNA are flexible. (C) inosine can hydrogen-bond with G, C, U or A. (D) A and B are true. (E) A, B, and C are true.

53. As a ribosome translocates along an mRNA molecule by one codon, which of the following occurs? (A) The tRNA that was in the A site moves into the P site. (B) The tRNA that was in the P site moves into the A site.  (C) The tRNA that was in the P site moves to the E site and is released. (D) The tRNA that was in the A site departs from the ribosome. (E) Both A and C are correct.

54. What are polyribosomes? (A) ribosomes associated with more than one tRNA (B) aggregations of vesicles containing ribosomal RNA (C) multiple copies of ribosomes found associated with giant chromosomes (D) ribosomes containing more than two subunits (E) groups of ribosomes reading the same mRNA simultaneously

55. Why is it difficult to get bacteria to express genes directly from eukaryotic DNA? (A) Eukaryotic genes are not transcribed in a single transcript. (B) Eukaryotic genes do not contain enhancer sequences. (C) Eukaryotic genes contain introns. (D) Eukaryotic genes lack controlling regions. (E) Eukaryotic genes may contain transposons.

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