申論題

3.It has been noted that when children overregularize past tense morphology, they are more likely to do this with certain types of irregular verbs than with others. For example, English verbs which undergo ablaut and no other process in forming their past tense (e.g., sing/sang, ring/rang, etc.) are more likely to be overregularized than are verbs which undergo no change (e.g., hit/hit, shut/shut, etc.). When adults are asked to supply past tense forms under time pressure, a similar difference in the amount of overregularization occurs. Why do you think this might be? (20%)