102年 - [無官方正解]102 國立嘉義大學_轉學生招生考試試題：經濟學#145191

1. Which of the following is NOT illustrated by a production possibilities frontier?
(A) scarcity (B) opportunity cost
(C)necessity for choice (D) who gets the goods

2. In monopolistic competition, in the long run customers pay a price that is
(A) less than the minimum ATC.
(B) more than the minimum ATC.
(C)equal to both the minimum ATC and the minimum AVC.
(D) equal to the minimum ATC, but not equal to the minimum AVC.

3. Suppose the price of a football is $20.00 and the price of a basketball is $10.00. The ________ of a football is ________.
(A) relative price; 2 basketballs (B) relative price; 1/2 basketball
(C)opportunity cost; $20.00 (D) opportunity cost; $10.00

4. If the price of gasoline fell from $2.35 to $2.25 per gallon, your expenditure on gasoline would increase if your price elasticity of demand for gasoline equals
(A) 0.9. (B) 1.0.
(C)1.1. (D) Total revenue would increase at all of the above elasticities.

5. The ________ the portion of your income spent on a good, the ________ is your demand for the good.
(A) larger; more income elastic (B) larger; more price elastic
(C)smaller; less price elastic (D) smaller; more income elastic

6. Toms is willing to pay $4 for his first slice of pizza and $3 for his second slice of pizza. If the market price is $2, on his two slices of pizza Toms receives a total consumer surplus of
(A) $4. (B) $3. (C)$2. (D) $1.

7. The figure illustrates the market for bagels. If the number of bagels produced is cut from 20 to10 an hour and the price rises to $2.00 per bagel, consumer surplus decreases by____.
(A) $5.00 an hour (B) $2.50 an hour (C)$7.50 an hour (D) $0.50 a bagel

8. If the production of a good creates pollution, then the
(A) marginal social benefit curve lies above the marginal private benefit curve.
(B) marginal social cost curve lies above the marginal private cost curve.
(C)marginal social benefit curve lies below the marginal private benefit curve.
(D) marginal social cost curve lies below the marginal private cost curve.

9. In the kinked demand curve model of oligopoly, if the marginal cost curve shifts upward, then output
(A) will always decrease.
(B) will always stay the same.
(C)will decrease if the shift is small, but stay the same if the shift is large.
(D) will stay the same if the shift is small, but decrease if the shift is large.

10. When consumption of a good increases, marginal utility will
(A) increase. (B) decrease.
(C)remain unchanged. (D) approach total utility.

11. Marginal revenue for a single-price monopolist is
(A) less than price. (B) equal to price.
(C)greater than price. (D) equal to zero for all levels of output.

12. If a tax is imposed on buyers in a market in which supply is perfectly inelastic, the
(A) buyers pay the entire tax.
(B) sellers pay the entire tax.
(C)buyers and the sellers both pay a portion of the tax.
(D) neither the buyers nor the sellers pay the tax.

13. An indifference diagram has movies on the vertical axis and sodas on the horizontal axis. As the consumption of sodas increases, the marginal rate of substitution ________ and the indifference curve becomes ________.
(A) falls; flatter (B) falls; steeper (C)rises; flatter (D) rises; steeper

14. The short-run supply curve for a perfectly competitive firm is its
(A) marginal cost curve above the horizontal axis.
(B) marginal cost curve above its shutdown point.
(C)average cost curve above the horizontal axis.
(D) average cost curve above its shutdown point.

15. Which market type has characteristics as follows: large number of firms, differentiated
product?
(A) perfect competition (B) monopoly
(C)oligopoly (D) monopolistic competition

16. The above (incomplete) table provides information about the relationships between labor and various product measures. The amount of labor that maximizes the marginal product of labor is
(A) 2 units of labor. (B) 3 units of labor. (C)4 units of labor. (D) 5 units of labor.

17. In perfect competition, at al levels of output the market price is the same as the firms ________.
(A) marginal revenue (B) normal profit
(C)average variable cost (D) fixed cost

18. Suppose some firms in a perfectly competitive industry are incurring an economic loss. As a result,
(A) all the firms will eventually incur an economic loss.
(B) some firms will leave the industry and the remaining firms quantity will decrease.
(C)some firms will leave the industry and the price of the good will rise.
(D) the total industry economic profit must equal $0.

19. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
(A) In the short run, a monopolist might operate even though it is incurring an economic loss but in the short run a perfectly competitive firm always shuts down if it is incurring an economic loss.
(B) A monopoly can earn an economic profit in the long run but a perfectly competitive firm cannot.
(C)A monopoly can set its price while a perfectly competitive firm cannot.
(D) A monopoly is protected by barriers to entry while a perfectly competitive firm is not.

20. In the long-run, a single-price monopolist will
(A) not be able to continue to earn economic profits and will earn a normal profit.
(B) be able to continue to earn economic profits as long as the market remains a monopoly.
(C)end up being regulated by the government because it is making short-run economic
profits.

21. Which of the following expenditures associated with the production of a new high-performance SUV will be directly included in GDP?
(A) the sale of bonds to finance the construction of the assembly plant
(B) the purchase of used welding robots to assemble to vehicles
(C)the purchase of new tires to be installed on the new vehicles
(D) the purchase of new machine tools to manufacture the engines

22.


From the data in the above table, GDP equals
(A) $1,120. (B) $1,280.
(C)$1,290. (D) $1,360.

23. When an individual is frictionally unemployed, the unemployment arises in part from
(A) a short-term elimination of jobs because of a slowdown in business activity.
(B) individuals searching for appropriate employment.
(C)the permanent elimination of jobs because of a change in the structure of the economy.
(D) a reduction in the overall demand for workers' skills.

24. If the CPI basket costs $35 in the base period but costs $42, what is the CPI in the next period?
(A) 83.3 (B) $42
(C)20 percent (D) 120

25. Which of the following directly creates growth in labor productivity?
I. Growth in capital per hour of labor.
II. Technological change.
III. Population growth.
(A) I only (B) II only
(C)I and II (D) I and III

26. "Premier Liu Chao-shiuan announced Tuesday a government plan to distribute NT$82.9 billion (US$2.51 billion) in consumption coupons to Taiwan's citizens in a bid to stimulate ... economic growth."
www.etaiwannews.com 11/18/2008
The Premier's plan to boost economic growth by boosting consumption
(A) will work because employment will increase.
(B) will work because there will be a movement out along Taiwan's aggregate production function.
(C)will not work because real GDP per person will decrease.
(D) will not work because economic growth is boosted by labor productivity, not consumption.

27. If foreigners spend more on Taiwan-made goods and services than we spend on theirs,
(A) foreigners must borrow from Taiwan or sell Taiwan assets to make up the difference.
(B) all Taiwan national saving remains in Taiwan.
(C)we must borrow from foreigners because of low imports.
(D) funds flow in from abroad to help finance Taiwan investment.

28. Technological progress that increases the expected profit shifts the demand for loanable funds curve
(A) leftward and reduces the real interest rate.
(B) rightward and increases the real interest rate.
(C)rightward and reduces the real interest rate.
(D) leftward and increases the real interest rate.

29. You deposit $4,000 in currency in your checking account. The bank holds 20 percent of all deposits as desired reserves. As a direct result of your deposit, your bank will create
(A) $200 of new money. (B) $800 of new money.
(C)$1,600 of new money. (D) $3,200 of new money.

30. Which of the following decreases the demand for nominal money?
(A) a decrease in the nominal interest rate (B) an increase in real GDP
(C)an increase in the quantity of money (D) a decrease in the price level

31. Which of the following is a factor that determines the amount of dollars supplied in the foreign exchange market?
(A) the exchange rate
(B) U.S. interest rate
(C)interest rates in foreign countries
(D) All of the above affect the number of dollars supplied in the foreign exchange market.

32. The Central Bank lowers interest rates. As a result, in the short run, real GDP ________ and the price level ________.
(A) increases; rises (B) increases; falls
(C)decreases; rises (D) decreases; falls

33. Suppose that the economy begins at a long-run equilibrium. Which of the following raises the price level and decrease real GDP in the short run?
(A) a decrease in the quantity of money
(B) an increase in the price of oil that decreases aggregate supply
(C)an increase in the stock of capital that increases aggregate supply
(D) an increase in government expenditures

34. A monetarist economist believes that
(A) if the economy was left alone, it would rarely operate at full employment.
(B) the economy is self-regulating and always at full employment.
(C)the economy is self-regulating and will normally, though not always, operate at full employment if monetary policy is not erratic.
(D) the economy is self-regulating and will normally, though not always, operate at full employment if fiscal policy is not erratic.

35. Suppose that the slope of the AE curve is 0.80. If prices remain constant and government expenditures increase by $10 billion, what will be the change in real GDP?
(A) $8 billion (B) $2 billion
(C)$10 billion (D) $50 billion

36. Which of the following could start a demand-pull inflation?
(A) an increase in government expenditures
(B) an increase in imports
(C)a decrease in the quantity of money
(D) an increase in the money prices of raw materials

37. If both the unemployment rate and the inflation rate decrease, you predict that ________.
(A) the expected inflation rate has increased
(B) the natural unemployment rate has decreased
(C)the economy has moved along its short-run Phillips curve
(D) the natural unemployment rate has increased

38. Which of the following is considered a purpose of the federal budget?
I. To help the economy achieve full employment.
II. To finance the activities of the federal government.
III. To promote sustained economic growth.
(A) I and II (B) I and III
(C)II and III (D) I, II and III

39. "European Economic Recovery Plan"
"The European Commission urged EU governments to jointly combat the economic slowdown with 200 billion euros ($256 billion) in spending and tax cuts to boost growth and consumer and business confidence. " The plan "...would see the 27 EU governments spend 1.5 percent of the bloc's gross domestic product to halt the slowdown that has already pushed some European nations into recession."
www.iht.com, 11/26/2008
The plan is expected to
(A) shift the AD curve rightward and increase real GDP.
(B) shift the AD curve leftward and decrease the recessionary gap.
(C)decrease the recessionary gap and decrease the price level.
(D) use the autonomous tax multiplier to eliminate the inflationary gap.

40. In an effort to address the troubled economy, ..."For the ninth time in just over a year, the Federal Reserve is expected to cut interest rates, quite possibly its last reduction in this downturn." Rates have not been this low "... since 2003, when the economy was growing at a snail's pace. "
www.csmonitor.com, 10/28/2008
The Fed's rate cuts will ________ bank reserves and ________.
(A) increase; increase the money supply and real GDP
(B) decrease; decrease the money supply and real GDP
(C)increase; increase the exchange rate and real GDP
(D) decrease bank reserves; decrease the exchange rate and real GDP

1.

The table above shows Tom's shoes short-run production function. Tom's hires workers at a wage rate of $50 a day and his total fixed cost is $100.
A) What is the marginal product of the 3rd worker?