107年 - [無官方正解]107 國立嘉義大學_轉學生招生考試試題_獸醫學院：普通化學#144710

科目：研究所、轉學考(插大)◆普通化學 | 年份：107年 | 選擇題數：40 | 申論題數：0

試卷資訊

所屬科目：研究所、轉學考(插大)◆普通化學

選擇題 (40)

1. Lithium forms compounds which are used in dry cells and storage batteries and in high-temperature
lubricants. It has two naturally occurring isotopes, 6Li (isotopic mass = 6.015121 amu) and 7Li (isotopic
mass = 7.016003 amu). Lithium has an atomic mass of 6.9409 amu. What is the percent abundance of
lithium-6?
(A) 92.50% (B) 86.66% (C) 46.16% (D) 7.503% (E) 6.080%
2. Vinegar is a solution of acetic acid, CH3COOH, dissolved in water. A 5.54g sample of vinegar was
neutralized by 30.10 mL of 0.100 M NaOH. What is the percent by weight of acetic acid in the vinegar?
(A) 0.184% (B) 1.63% (C) 3.26% (D) 5.43% (E) 9.23%
3. Based on the solubility rules, which of the following will occur if solutions of CuSO4(aq) and BaCl2(aq)
are mixed?
(A) CuCl2 will precipitate; Ba2+ and SO42 – are spectator ions.
(B) CuSO4 will precipitate; Ba2+ and Cl – are spectator ions.
(C) BaSO4 will precipitate; Cu2+ and Cl– are spectator ions.
(D) BaCl2 will precipitate; Cu2+ and SO42 – are spectator ions.
(E) No precipitate will form.
4. Which of the following is a strong acid?
(A) HF (B) KOH (C) HClO4 (D) HClO (E) HBrO
5. Which of the following is a correct set of quantum numbers for an electron in a 3d orbital?
(A) n = 3, l = 0, ml = -1 (B) n = 3, l = 1, ml = +3 (C) n = 3, l = 3, ml = +2
(D) n = 3, l = 2, ml = -2 (E) n = 3, l = 2, ml = 3
6. An atom of vanadium has ___ unpaired electrons and is _____.
(A) 0, diamagnetic (B) 2, diamagnetic (C) 3, paramagnetic
(D) 5, paramagnetic (E) 4, diamagnetic
7. The small, but important, energy differences between 3s, 3p, and 3d orbitals are due mainly to
(A) the number of electrons they can hold (B) their principal quantum number
(C) the Heisenberg uncertainty principle (D) the penetration effect
(E) Hund's rule
8. Select the correct electron configuration for Cu (Z = 29).
(A) [Ar]4s23d9 (B) [Ar]4s13d10 (C) [Ar]4s24p63d3 (D) [Ar]4s24d9
(E) [Ar]5s24d9
9. Consider the set of isoelectronic atoms and ions A2-, B-, C, D+, and E2+. Which arrangement of relative
radii is correct?
(A) A2- > B- > C > D+ > E2+ (B) E2+ > D+ > C > B- > A2-
(C) A2- > B- > C < D+ < E2+ (D) A2- < B- < C > D+ > E2+
(E) None of these is correct.
10. If a molecule demonstrates paramagnetism, then :
I. The substance can have both paired and unpaired electrons.
II. The bond order is not a whole number.
III. It can be determined by drawing a Lewis structure.
IV. It must be an ion.
(A)I, II (B) I, II, IV (C) II, III (D) I only (E) All of the above are correct.
11. Predict the ideal bond angles around nitrogen in N2F2 using the molecular shape given by the VSEPR
theory. (N is the central atom.)
(A) 90° (B) 109° (C) 120° (D) 180° (E) between 120 and 180°
12. Which of the following molecules has a net dipole moment?
(A) BeCl2 (B) SF2 (C) KrF2 (D) CO2 (E) CCl4
13. Valence bond theory predicts that xenon will use _____ hybrid orbitals in XeOF4.
(A) sp (B) sp2 (C) sp3 (D) sp3d (E) sp3d2
14. According to molecular orbital (MO) theory, the twelve outermost electrons in the O2 molecule are
distributed as follows:
(A) 12 in bonding MOs, 0 in antibonding MOs.
(B) 10 in bonding MOs, 2 in antibonding MOs.
(C) 9 in bonding MOs, 3 in antibonding MOs.
(D) 8 in bonding MOs, 4 in antibonding MOs.
(E) 7 in bonding MOs, 5 in antibonding MOs.
15. Which of the following statements relating to molecular orbital (MO) theory is incorrect?
(A) Combination of two atomic orbitals produces one bonding and one antibonding MO.
(B) A bonding MO is lower in energy than the two atomic orbitals from which it is formed.
(C) Combination of two 2p orbitals may result in either σ or π MOs.
(D) A species with a bond order of zero will not be stable.
(E) In a stable molecule having an even number of electrons, all electrons must be paired.
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16. One can safely assume that the 3s- and 3p-orbitals will form molecular orbitals similar to those formed
when 2s- and 2p-orbitals interact. According to molecular orbital theory, what will be the bond order
for the Cl2+ ion?
(A) 0.5 (B) 1 (C) 1.5 (D) 2 (E) None of these choices is correct.
17. Consider three 1-L flasks at STP. Flask A contains NH3 gas, flask B contains NO2 gas, and flask C
contains N2 gas. Which contains the largest number of molecules?
(A) Flask A (B) Flask B (C) Flask C (D) All are the same (E) None of these choices is
correct.
18. In which flask are the molecules least polar and therefore most ideal in behavior?
(A) Flask A (B) Flask B (C) Flask C (D) All are the same (E) None of these choices is
correct.
19. For which of the following species are the intermolecular interactions entirely due to dispersion forces?
(A) C2H6 (B) CH3OCH3 (C) NO2 (D) H2S
20. Which of the following liquids would have the highest viscosity at 25°C?
(A) CH3OCH3 (B) C2H5OH (C) CH3Br (D) HOCH2CH2OH
21. A 15.00 % by mass solution of lactose (C12H22O11, 342.30 g/mol) in water has a density of 1.0602 g/mL
at 20°C. What is the molarity of this solution?
(A) 0.03097 M (B) 0.4133 M (C) 0.4646 M (D) 1.590 M (E) 1.379 M
22. Which of the following systems possesses the lowest freezing point?
(A) 0.1 M FeCl3(aq) (B) 0.1 M K2SO4(aq) (C) 0.1 M CaCl2(aq) (D) 0.3 M C6H12O6, glucose
(E) 0.1 M NaCl
23. For a particular process q = 20 kJ and w = 15 kJ. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Heat flows from the system to the surroundings.
(B) The system does work on the surroundings.
(C) E = 35 kJ (D) All of the above are true. (E) None of these choices is correct.
24. Which of the following results in a decrease in the entropy of the system?
(A) O2(g), 300 KO2(g), 400 K
(B) H2O(s), 0°C H2O(l), 0°C
(C) N2(g), 25°CN2(aq), 25°C
(D) NH3(l), -34.5°C NH3(g), -34.5°C
(E) 2H2O2(g) 2H2O(g) + O2(g)
25. Given the following acids and Ka values:
HClO4 HOAc HCN HF
1  107 1.76  10–5 4.93  10–10 3.53  10–4
What is the order of increasing base strength?
(A) CN–, F–, OAc–, ClO4– (B) CN–, OAc–, F–, ClO4– (C) CN–, ClO4–, F–, OAc–
(D) ClO4–, OAc–, CN–, F– (E) ClO4–, F–, OAc–, CN–
26. According to the first law of thermodynamics, the energy of the universe is constant. Does this mean
that ΔE is always equal to zero?
(A) Yes, ΔE = 0 at all times, which is why q = -w.
(B) No, ΔE does not always equal zero, but this is only due to factors like friction and heat.
(C) No, ΔE does not always equal zero because it refers to the system's internal energy, which is
affected by heat and work.
(D) No, ΔE never equals zero because work is always being done on the system or by the system.
(E) None of these
27. Calculate the pH of the following aqueous solution: 0.66 M NaF (pKa for HF = 3.14)
(A) 5.52 (B) 2.96 (C) 8.48 (D) 11.04 (E) none of these
28. Colligative properties depend on
(A) the chemical properties of the solute. (B) the chemical properties of the solvent.
(C) the masses of the individual ions. (D) the molar mass of the solute.
(E) the number of particles dissolved.
29. A 0.100 m K2SO4 solution has a freezing point of -0.43°C. What is the van't Hoff factor for this solution?
Kf = 1.86°C/m
(A) 0.77 (B) 1.0 (C) 2.3 (D) 3.0 (E) >3.0
30. The reaction 2A + 5B → products is second order in A and fourth order in B. What is the rate law for
this reaction?
(A) rate = k[A]2[B]5 (B) rate = k[A]4[B]2 (C) rate = k[A]2[B]4
(D) rate = k[A]5[B]2 (E) rate = k[A]2/7[B]5/7
31. The Ksp of AgI is 1.5 ൈ 10–16. Calculate the solubility in mol/L of AgI in a 0.45 M NaI solution.
(A)6.8ൈ10–17 (B) 0.45 (C) 1.5ൈ10–16 (D) 1.2ൈ10–8 (E) 3.3ൈ10–16
32. What is the formula for the pentaamminehydroxotitanium(II) ion?
(A)[Ti(NH3)(OH)5]3– (B) [Ti(NH3)5(OH)5]2+ (C) [Ti(NH3)5(OH)]2+ (D)[Ti(NH3)5(OH)5]3–
(E) [Ti(NH3)5(OH)]+
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33. Which of the following complexes can exhibit optical isomerism? (en = H2N–CH2–CH2–NH2 and is
bidentate)
(A)cis–Co(NH3)4Cl2 (B) trans–Co(en)2Br2 (C) cis–Co(en)2Cl2 (D) Co(NH3)3Cl3
(E) none of these
34. Which of the following complexes shows geometrical isomerism?
(A) [Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4 (B) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (C) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 (D) K[Co(NH3)2Cl4]
(E) none of these
35. The complex ions of Zn2+ are all colorless. The most likely explanation for this is:
(A) Zn2+ is paramagnetic.
(B) Zn2+ exhibits “d orbital” splittings in its complexes such that they absorb all wavelengths in the
visible region.
(C) Since Zn2+ is a d10 ion, it does not absorb visible light even though the “d orbital” splittings are
correct for absorbing visible wavelengths.
(D) Zn2+ is not a transition metal ion.
(E) None of these is correct.
36. The complex FeL62+, where L is a neutral ligand, is known to be diamagnetic. The number of d
electrons in this complex ion is:
(A)4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 (E) 8
37. What is the correct IUPAC name for [MnCl4(H2O)2]– ?
(A) diaquatetrachloromanganate(0) ion (B) diaquatetrachloromanganate(III) ion
(C) diaquatetrachloromanganate(I) ion (D) diaquatetrachloromanganese(III) ion
(E) diaquatetrachloromanganese(I) ion
38. What is the maximum oxidation state expected for titanium?
(A)+8 (B) +5 (C) +3 (D) +2 (E) +4
39. Consider the following numbered processes:ΔH for the process A → 2C + E is
1. A→2B
2. B →C + D
3. E → 2D
(A) ΔH1+ΔH2 +ΔH3 (B) ΔH1+ΔH2 (C) ΔH1+ΔH2 –ΔH3
(D) ΔH1 + 2ΔH2 –ΔH3 (E) none of these
40. Which of the following species has the largest dissociation energy?
(A)O2 (B) O2– (C) O22– (D) O2+ (E) O22+ 3

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