114年 - [無官方正解]114 國立臺灣大學_轉學生招生考試﹕普通生物學(B)#128202

1. The operation of the sodium-potassium "pump" moves
(A) sodium and potassium ions into the cell
(B) sodium and potassium ions out of the cell
(C) sodium ions into the cell and potassium ions out of the cell
(D) sodium ions out of the cell and potassium ions into the cell
(E) sodium and potassium ions into the mitochondria

2. Light reflecting off an object in the environment is detected by photoreceptors after following which path?
(A) lens ＞ cornea ＞ retina ＞ ganglion cell layer ＞ iris
(B) cornea ＞ lens ＞ iris ＞ ganglion cell layer ＞ retina
(C) retina ＞ ganglion cell layer ＞ lens ＞ iris ＞ cornea
(D) cornea ＞ iris ＞ lens ＞ ganglion cell layer ＞ retina

3. How do myelin sheaths increase the speed with which action potentials are propagated along an axon?
(A) They increase the permeability of Na+ ions in the plasma membrane.
(B) They amplify the action potential by increasing sodium influx along the entire distance of the neuron.
(C) They insulate the axon, preventing K+ ions from exiting the neuron.
(D) They cause action potentials to "jump" down the axon rather than travel in a continuous path along every site on the axon.

4. A newborn who is accidentally given a drug that destroys the thymus would most likely
(A) lack class I major histocompatability (MHC) molecules on cell surfaces
(B) lack innate immunity
(C) be unable to genetically rearrange antigen receptors
(D) be unable to differentiate and mature T cells
(E) have a reduced number of B cells and be unable to form antibodies

5. Suppose a person's AV node in their heart suddenly stopped sending signals to the rest of the heart. How would this person's EKG differ from normal?
(A) The EKG would have a taller P region.
(B) The EKG would not have a QRS region.
(C) The EKG would have a shorter T region
(D) The EKG would not have a gap between the S and T regions.

6. Oxygen-poor blood is carried from the heart of a mammal to the lungs via the
(A) pulmonary arteries.
(B) pulmonary veins.
(C) superior vena cava.
(D) inferior vena cava.

7. Which of the following hormones is made by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary?
(A) estrogen.
(B) anti-diuretic hormone (ADH).
(C) insulin.
(D) calcitonin.

8. During ventricular systole, the semilunar valves _ and the AV valves _
(A) open; open. (B) close; open (C) open; close. (D) close; close

9. Functionally, what is a muscle fiber's fundamental unit of contraction?
(A) Z line. (B) thin filament. (C) thick filament. (D) sarcomere.

10. Arrange in the correct sequence these components of the mammalian immune system as it first responds to a pathogen.
I. Pathogen is destroyed.
II. Lymphocytes secrete antibodies.
III. Antigens from the pathogen bind to receptors on lymphocytes.
IV. Lymphocytes specific to antigens from the pathogen become numerous.
V. Only memory cells remain.
(A) I → III → II → IV → V
(B) III → II → I → V → IV
(C) III → I → IV → II → V
(D) IV → II → III → I → V
(E) III → IV → II → I → V

11. The essential amino acids
(A) must be obtained from the food we eat.
(B) are found only in green, leafy vegetables.
(C) are essential as an energy source.
(D) are required for making nucleic acids.

12. For a neuron at rest with a membrane potential of -65 mV, an increase in the movement of potassium ions out of that neuron's cytoplasm would result in the _.
(A) depolarization of the neuron
(B) hyperpolarization of the neuron
(C) replacement of potassium ions with sodium ions
(D) replacement of potassium ions with calcium ions
(E) neuron switching on its sodium-potassium pump to restore the initial conditions

13. Most gastric ulcers are caused by
(A) overuse of aspirin and/or ibuprofen.
(B) excessive mental stress.
(C) bacteria.
(D) overconsumption of alcohol.

14. Which gland requires iodine to produce its hormones?
(A) adrenal medulla. (B) pineal. (C) pituitary. (D) thyroid.

15. The activity of acetylcholine in a synapse is terminated by its _.
(A) active transport across the presynaptic membrane
(B) diffusion across the presynaptic membrane
(C) active transport across the postsynaptic membrane
(D) diffusion across the postsynaptic membrane
(E) degradation on the postsynaptic membrane

16. Which neurotransmitter excites muscle cells?
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) epinephrine
(C) endorphin
(D) nitric oxide
(E) gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

17. In the human retina,
(A) cone cells can detect color, but rod cells cannot
(B) cone cells are more sensitive than rod cells to light
(C) cone cells, but not rod cells, have a visual pigment
(D) rod cells detect short wavelength UV light
(E) rod cells require higher illumination for stimulation than do cone cells

18. Which of the following cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity and also respond to class I MHC molecule-antigen complexes?
(A) cytotoxic T cells
(B) plasma cells
(C) helper T cells
(D) macrophages
(E) B cells

19. Damage to the frontal lobe, such as experienced by Phineas Gage, leads to _.
(A) the loss of a sense of balance.
(B) the loss of all short-term memory
(C) altered emotional responses
(D) greatly increased long-term memory

20. Which of the following is the best definition of autoimmune disease?
(A) a condition in which B cells and T cells respond independently to antigens and do not interact correctly
(B) a condition in which the adaptive immune system fails to recognize the second infection by the same antigen
(C) a condition in which self molecules are treated as nonself
(D) a condition in which the immune system creates random antibodies without being triggered by an antigen

22. Which of the following is an endocrine gland that raises blood calcium levels?
(A) parathyroid
(B) thyroid gland
(C) pituitary gland
(D) testes

23. An excess of T3 and T4 in the blood is hyperthyroidism, which in its most common form is called
(A) goiter.
(B) sterility.
(C) Graves' disease.
(D) botulism.

24. High levels of which of the following hormones can suppress the body's immune system?
(A) glucagon
(B) mineralocorticoids
(C) glucocorticoids
(D) antidiuretic hormone

25. After being produced in the testes, sperm mature further in a structure called the
(A) vas deferens.
(B) epididymis.
(C) prostate.
(D) seminal vesicle.

26. Water's unique properties for the chemical basis of life are primarily a consequence of its:
(A) highly stable covalent bonds.
(B) existence as individual atoms in organisms.
(C) polarity and hydrogen bonding.
(D) role in preventing elements from combining.
(E) exceptional heat resistance due to strong ionic bonds.

27. Which statement accurately reflects a fundamental concept of cells?
(A) Carbon compounds are essential building blocks due to limited bonding.
(B) Carbohydrates primarily provide long-term energy storage.
(C) Lipids are hydrophilic, serving mainly as immediate fuel.
(D) Carbohydrates are a cell's primary fuel source and important building materials.
(E) Biomolecule functions are determined by nitrogen and phosphorus.

28. Which statement accurately describes a fundamental concept about cell structure and function?
(A) Genetic instructions are in the nucleus, but ribosomes are not involved in protein synthesis.
(B) Microscopes are essential but strictly limited to non-living cells.
(C) The endomembrane system generates energy exclusively via oxidative phosphorylation.
(D) Genetic instructions in the nucleus are carried out by ribosomes for protein synthesis.
(E) Ribosomes are membrane-bound organelles managing material distribution.

29. A unique adaptation found only in angiosperms is:
(A) showy cones for animal pollination.
(B) an ovary enclosing ovules that mature into a fruit.
(C) spores released to develop into free-living gametophytes.
(D) seeds produced on cone scales.
(E) lack of enclosed seeds at maturity.

30. In gymnosperm reproduction, the male gametophyte is:
(A) a pollen grain enclosed within a tough wall.
(B) where sperm fertilizes eggs within the female structure.
(C) a free-living gametophyte developed from released spores.
(D) a nucleus released freely into the ovule without a pollen tube.
(E) an ovule maturing into a fruit after fertilization.

31. A key difference in seed protection and developmental between angiosperms and gymnosperms is that:
(A) Angiosperm seeds develop exposed on cone scales, while gymnosperm seeds are enclosed in fruits.
(B) Both produce seeds that are fully exposed to the environment at all stages.
(C) Angiosperm seeds develop enclosed within a fruit, while gymnosperm seeds develop exposed on cones or modified
leaves.
(D) Gymnosperm seeds require animal dispersal within fruits, unlike angiosperms.
(E) Angiosperms produce naked seeds, whereas gymnosperms always have seeds protected by an ovary.

32. Which accurately describes a key structural component or function within a typical vascular plant?
(A) Water undergoes active transport through xylem to defy gravity.
(B) Stomata, mainly on leaf undersides, regulate gas exchange and transpiration.
(C) The cambium enables secondary growth, decreasing stem/root girth.
(D) Root mineral uptake relies solely on soil concentration gradient.
(E) Flowers are reproductive structures that prevent sexual reproduction.

33. Cellulose is a polysaccharide that is a major component of:
(A) animal cell membranes.
(B) fungal cell walls.
(C) plant cell walls.
(D) bacterial capsules.
(E) insect exoskeletons.

34. Lignin's role in plant transition from aquatic to terrestrial environments was to:
(A) protect early aquatic plants only in freshwater.
(B) allow plants to grow tall with rigid stems, providing structural support against gravity.
(C) serve as a cuticle component preventing any water loss.
(D) be primarily responsible for vibrant flower colors.
(E) significantly decrease photosynthetic efficiency.

35. Which statement is accurate regarding metabolism?
(A) Energy from exergonic reactions is never coupled to drive endergonic reactions.
(B) Endergonic reaction products have less potential energy, releasing energy.
(C) Metabolism encompasses all chemical reactions, where exergonic energy (via ATP) drives endergonic.
(D) Cellular respiration is exergonic, but it does not store energy in ATP.
(E) Photosynthesis is an exergonic process that breaks down energy-rich molecules.

36. Which statement accurately describes the processes of photosynthesis?
(A) Initial light-capturing reactions occur in thylakoid membranes, converting light into ATP/NADPH, releasing
oxygen.
(B) Splitting carbon dioxide releases oxygen as a byproduct.
(C) Carbon fixation (Calvin cycle) takes place in the cytoplasm.
(D) Electrons from chlorophyll go directly to ATP synthase.
(E) Cellular respiration exclusively sustains light-independent reactions during night.

37. In photosynthesis, the splitting of water molecules (photolysis) directly contributes to the production of:
(A) glucose and carbon dioxide.
(B) ATP and NADPH for the Calvin cycle.
(C) electrons, protons (H+), and oxygen gas.
(D) pigments within the thylakoid membrane..
(E) ATP only, without NADPH.

38. The Calvin cycle (light-independent reactions) in photosynthesis primarily involves:
(A) capturing light energy independently from water splitting.
(B) producing ATP and NADPH from light energy.
(C) converting carbon dioxide into sugars using ATP and NADPH.
(D) releasing oxygen as a byproduct.
(E) occurring exclusively during the night.

39. Which statement accurately describes key conceptual aspects of cellular respiration?
(A) Glycolysis is a universal process that occurs with or without oxygen, serving as glucose's initial breakdown.
(B) Pyruvate oxidation and citric acid cycle fully oxidize all oxygen atoms from glucose.
(C) Oxidative phosphorylation uses ATP and FADH2 energy to produce NADH via single-step redox reactions.
(D) The electron transport chain creates a sugar gradient for ATP synthesis.
(E) Most aerobic ATP is produced exclusively in glycolysis.

40. Most of the ATP generated during aerobic cellular respiration is produced during:
(A) glycolysis.
(B) pyruvate oxidation.
(C) the citric acid cycle.
(D) oxidative phosphorylation.
(E) fermentation.

41. The primary role of oxygen in aerobic cellular respiration is to:
(A) directly produce ATP.
(B) oxidize glucose during glycolysis.
(C) act as an enzyme in the citric acid cycle.
(D) serve as the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain.
(E) create a proton gradient across the mitochondrial membrane.

42. Which statement accurately describes a key event or outcome of meiosis?
(A) Meiosis produces four genetically identical daughter cells.
(B) In meiosis I, sister chromatids separate.
(C) Crossing over occurs during prophase II.
(D) Meiosis involves two successive cell divisions, resulting in four genetically unique haploid cells.
(E) Meiosis's primary purpose is to repair damaged somatic cells.

43. Which statement accurately describes a fundamental concept in Mendelian genetics?
(A) Mendel used cross-pollinating peas, which made true-breeding lines easy to establish.
(B) Dominant alleles have a higher inheritance frequency.
(C) The Law of Segregation states that during gamete formation, alleles for a character separate and end up in different
gametes.
(D) Repeated self-pollination was not necessary to obtain true-breeding lines.
(E) Mendel concluded independent sorting, though his chosen genes were always linked.

44. In a plant species exhibiting incomplete dominance for flower color, a cross between a red-flowered plant (RR) and a
white-flowered plant (WW) would produce offspring (RW) with what phenotype?
(A) Only red flowers.
(B) Only white flowers.
(C) Flowers with both red and white patches.
(D) Pink flowers (a blend of red and white).
(E) Flowers of a completely new color unrelated to parental colors.

45. During gene expression, which molecule carries the genetic code from the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm for
protein synthesis?
(A) Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
(B) Transfer RNA (tRNA)
(C) DNA polymerase
(D) Amino acids
(E) Messenger RNA (mRNA)

46. Which condition violates the assumptions of the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
(A) Random mating occurs.
(B) No gene flow into or out of the population..
(C) The population size is very large.
(D) Natural selection favors certain genotypes.
(E) No new mutations occur.

47. If a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for a gene, its allele frequencies will:
(A) remain constant across generations unless an evolutionary force acts.
(B) be perfectly balanced by genetic drift and gene flow.
(C) change due to active mate choice based on genotype.
(D) significantly deviate from predicted genotypic frequencies.
(E) always be significantly altered by new mutations in the short term.

48. Microevolution refers to:
(A) small-scale evolutionary changes within a population, observable over short periods, like allele frequency changes.
(B) large-scale evolutionary changes that never lead to new species.
(C) mechanisms entirely different from those causing macroevolution.
(D) changes that cannot lead to macroevolutionary patterns.
(E) speciation, as an exclusively macroevolutionary event.

49. Which of the following is a direct cause of microevolution within a population?
(A) The formation of a new species over millions of years.
(B) A change in the frequency of an allele due to random chance (genetic drift).
(C) The large-scale extinction of a taxonomic group.
(D) The diversification of life forms into new phyla.
(E) The development of complex multicellular organisms from single-celled ancestors.

50. An example of microevolution is:
(A) the appearance of the first flowering plants.
(B) the diversification of mammals after the dinosaur extinction.
(C) the evolution of birds from reptilian ancestors.
(D) the formation of a new genus through accumulated genetic changes.
(E) an increase in antibiotic resistance in a bacterial population over several generations.

114年 - [無官方正解]114 國立臺灣大學_轉學生招生考試﹕普通生物學(B)#128202

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