28. What are the expected changes in kinetics in the presence of a competitive inhibitor?
(A) decreases, appears to decrease.
(B) does not change, appears to decrease.
(C) decreases, appears to increase.
(D) does not change, appears to increase.
(E) decreases, does not change.

24. Which of the following is   not   true of RNA processing? (A) Exons are cut out before mRNA leaves the nucleus. (B) Nucleotides may be added at both ends of the RNA. (C) Ribozymes may function in RNA splicing. (D) RNA splicing can be catalyzed by spliceosomes. (E) A primary transcript is often much longer than the final RNA molecule that leaves the nucleus.

25. Which of the following is most likely to have a small protein called ubiquitin attached to it? (A) A regulatory protein that requires sugar residues to be attached. (B) A cell surface protein that requires transport from the ER. (C) An mRNA that is leaving the nucleus to be translated. (D) A cyclin that usually acts in G1, now that the cell is in G2. (E) An mRNA produced by an egg cell that will be retained until after fertilization. 

第26至50題每題2.5分 26. Sam is trying to separate a protein mixture containing three proteins A, B, C. Protein A: homotetramer, Mr = 120,000, pI =6； Protein B: monomer, Mr = 80,000, pI=7； Protein C: monomer, Mr = 13,000, pI=9. Please choose the correct one from the following descriptions: (A) If Sam dissolves the mixture in 0.1 M Tris-HCl (pH 7) and uses SDS-PAGE to separate the mixture, the protein bands in the gel from top to bottom should be B-A-C. (B) If Sam dissolves the protein mixture in 20 mM phosphate buffer (pH 8) and loads it to an anion exchange column equilibrated with the same buffer, only protein C can bind to the column. (C) If Sam dissolves the mixture in 0.1 M Tris-HCl (pH 7) and uses size exclusion column to separate the mixture, protein C will be first eluted. (D) If Sam dissolves the mixture in 0.1 M Tris-HCl (pH 7) and uses size exclusion column to separate the mixture, the elution sequence is B-A-C. (E) If Sam dissolves the protein mixture in 20 mM phosphate buffer (pH 7) and loads it to a cation exchange column equilibrated with the same buffer, only protein A can bind to the column.

27. Which description is correct? (A) All the residues in the peptide with sequence "AKLFPIEARQA" have only one chiral center. (B) The peptide with sequence “AKQHPMLWNR” does not contain the residue which can be O-glycosylated. (C) The pI value of peptide with sequence "DSQWMKLGIV" should be near 9. (D) When the peptide with sequence "CYTTLNKTG" was completely digested by trypsin, we can get one tripeptide and one hexapeptide. (E) The peptide with sequence "AKLFPIEARGQA" does not contain any aromatic ring.

29. Which of the following explains why enzymes are extremely effective catalysts? (A) An enzyme stabilizes the transition state. (B) Enzymes bind very tightly to substrates. (C) Enzymes release products very rapidly. (D) An enzyme can convert a normally endergonic reaction into an exergonic reaction. (E) An enzyme lowers the energy of activation only for the forward reaction.

30. Recent studies have shown that the H-bond between the distal histidine and oxygen molecule in myoglobin has a strength of ~15 kJ/mol, but in hemoglobin, the strength of the bond is only ~8 kJ/mol. What does this suggest about the differences between myoglobin and hemoglobin? (A) Myoglobin binds oxygen more strongly than hemoglobin. (B) Hemoglobin binds oxygen more strongly than myoglobin. (C) The iron in myoglobin is more easily oxidized than in hemoglobin. (D) The iron in hemoglobin is more easily oxidized than in myoglobin. (E) None of the above.

31. Which of the following is true regarding effectors of oxygen-hemoglobin binding? (A) Actively metabolizing tissues produce acid which increases hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen. (B) The presence of CO2 enhances the release of oxygen from hemoglobin. (C) 2,3-Bisphosphoglycerate must dissociate from hemoglobin before oxygen can be released. (D) The presence of protons will counter the effect of CO2 on the release of oxygen by hemoglobin. (E) None of the above.

32. Which of the following statements regarding enzyme regulation is true? (A) Addition of an inhibitor to a V system results in kinetics similar to addition of a competitive inhibitor to a typical hyperbolic system. (B) Allosteric effectors are always more powerful than covalent modification. (C) Addition of an allosteric activator to a K system changes the plot of V vs. [S] from a sigmoidal curve to a more hyperbolic curve. (D) The T state of an enzyme generally has more activity than the R state. (E) None of the above are true.

33. Which of the following is correct concerning the mitochondrial ATP synthase? (A) It can synthesize ATP after it is extracted from broken mitochondria. (B) It catalyzes the formation of ATP even though the reaction has a large positive . (C) It consists of F₀ and F₁ subunits, which are transmembrane (integral) polypeptides. (D) When it catalyzes the ATP synthesis reaction, the  is actually close to zero. (E) It is actually an ATPase and only catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP.

34. There is reciprocal regulation of glycolytic and gluconeogenic reactions interconverting fructose-6-phosphate and fructose-1,6-bisphosphate. Which one of the following statements about this regulation is   not   correct? (A) Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate activates phosphofructokinase-1. (B) Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate inhibits fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase. (C) The fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase reaction is exergonic. (D) The phosphofructokinase-1 reaction is endergonic. (E) This regulation allows control of the direction of net metabolite flow through the pathway.