所屬科目：研究所、轉學考(插大)-普通生物學
1. An individual who has two identical alleles for a trait is said to be _____(A) Homozygous (B) heterozygous (C)isozygous (D) a variant
2. An individual who has two different alleles for a trait is called _____(A) Haploid (B) homozygous (C)heterozygous (D) true-breeding
3. Skin cells and nerve cells represent _ cells, while a sperm cell is an example of a _____ cell. (A) somatic; somatic (B) somatic; germ (C)germ; germ (D) germ; somatic
4. During this phase of the cell cycle the sister chromatids are formed. (A) G₁ phase (B) G₂ phase (C)S phase (D) prophase
5. A bivalent contains how many sister chromatids? (A) 2 (B) 4 (C)8 (D) depends on the cell
6. Huntington disease in humans is an example of _____(A) essential genes (B) lethal alleles (C)semilethal alleles (D) conditional lethal alleles
7. The coat characteristics of Siamese cats and Himalayan rabbits, where proteins in the extremities function differently than in other parts of the body, is an example of _____(A) incomplete dominance (B) multiple allele systems (C)semilethal alleles (D) temperature-sensitive conditional allele
8. Phenylketonuria in humans is an example of _____(A) incomplete penetrance (B) codominance (C)an environmental-influenced trait (D) incomplete dominance
9. An organism that contains patches of tissue that vary for a specific characteristic, such as a pigment, is an example of which of the following? (A) linkage (B) meiotic recombination (C)mitotic recombination (D) translocations
10. While mapping two genes in Drosophila you observe 30 recombinants among 200 total offspring. What is the distance between these genes? (A) 30 map units (B) 6.67 map units (C)200 map units (D) 15 map units
11. In a given mapping experiment you expect that incidence of double crossovers is 3.5%, but you only observe 2.5%. This can be explained by _____(A) interference (B) linkage (C)coincidence (D) segregation
12. Which of the following is correct concerning F factors? (A) Another term for a plasmid (B) It stands for fertility factor (C)It allows conjugation to occur (D) All of the answers are correct
13. The protein complex that initiates the process of conjugation following contact between two bacteria is called the _____(A) origin of transfer (B) T DNA (C)relaxosome (D) nucleoprotein
14. Gene duplications, such as the ultra bar-eye phenotype of Drosophila, may be caused by which of the following? (A) the crossing over of misaligned chromosomes (B) deletion of important genetic information (C)reciprocal translocations (D) position effect
15. The production of gene families, such as the globin genes, is the result of _____(A) inversions (B) deficiencies (C)gene duplications (D) simple translocations
16. Given the following sequence of genes on a chromosome, determine what change in chromosome structure occurred. (the * indicates the centromere)
(A) reciprocal translocation (B) pericentric inversion (C)paracentric inversion (D) gene duplication
17. According to Chargaff's rule, if the DNA of a species contains 20% adenine, what percent of guanine will it contain? (A) 20% (B) 30% (C)50% (D) 75%
18. The first group of researchers to correctly identify the double-helix structure of DNA were _____(A) McClintock and Franklin (B) Hershey and Chase (C)Pauling and Avery (D) Watson and Crick
19. You have discovered a strain of E. coli that grows very slowly-the generation time is nearly 12 hours compared to the normal 20-30 minutes. Upon further investigation, you find a mutation in the DNA polymerase III gene. What subunit of the holoenzyme, does this mutation affect the most. (A) α (B) β (C)γ (D) ψ
20. Okazaki fragments do which of the following? (A) assist in forming the replication fork (B) bind to the oriC region (C)assist in the synthesis of DNA from the lagging strand (D) reform the double-helix following replication
21. Which of the following is an example of a processive enzyme? (A) DNA polymerase I (B) DNA polymerase III (C)DNA ligase (D) Okazaki fragments
22. Most eukaryotic genes are collinear. (A) True (B) False (C)Because they are driven by a promoter (D) B and C are right
23. An R loop experiment was performed on two different mRNA's. The first showed one R loop, while the second showed two R loops separated by a region of double-stranded DNA. What is the composition of these two mRNA's? (A) The first contains no introns and the second two introns (B) The first contains no introns and the second one intron (C)The first contains one intron and the second two introns (D) The first contains two introns and the second one intron
24. What enables the splicing of group I and II introns? (A) spliceosomes (B) ribozymes (C)snRNA (D) poly-A tail
25. Where does mRNA/tRNA codon-anticodon recognition take place? (A) 30S (B) 40S (C)50S (D) the surface between the two ribosomal subunits
26. With regard to Chapeville's experiment, what could not be the radioactive element used to label cysteine? (A) 15N (B) 35S (C)C (D) H
27. If a bacteria is placed in an environment that contains both glucose and lactose, the regulation of the lac operon will allow which nutrient to be processed first? (A) glucose (B) lactose (C)Both will be processed equally (D) Neither will be processed in this environment
28. The regulation of protein function, not gene expression, is called _____ regulation. (A) posttranslational (B) transcriptional (C)translational (D) post-transcriptional
29. Translational regulatory proteins recognize specific areas of what molecule? (A) tRNA (B) ribosome (C)rRNA (D) mRNA
30. Histone acetyltransferases would be directly involved in which of the following? (A) formation of open chromatin (B) movement of the nucleosome (C)acetylation of lysines (D) termination of gene expression
31. CpG islands are associated with which of the following? (A) nucleosome location (B) DNA methylation (C)steroid hormone activity (D) cAMP pathway
32. Genomic imprinting is a result of _____(A) nucleosome location (B) histone activation (C)DNA methylation (D) serine to leucine changes in the genetic code
33. As a researcher you have identified a potential transposable element that contains both a transposase and resolvase enzyme. Which of the following types of transposons would you assign it to based on this information? (A) composite transposon (B) non-viral retroelement (C)viral-like retroelement (D) replicative transposon
34. Long-terminal repeats are unique to which group of transposons? (A) composite transposon (B) non-viral retroelement (C)viral-like retroelement (D) replicative transposon
35. Which of the following is technically not part of the genetic information of a transposable element? (A) long-terminal repeats (B) inverted repeats (C)direct repeats (D) transposase
36. Which of the following would contain both vector DNA and chromosomal DNA? (A) recircularized vector (B) hybrid vector (C)both vectors (D) neither vector
37. In a cloning experiment you use a vector that contains a lacZ gene as a selectable marker. If the competent cells are grown on X-Gal and IPTG, which colonies would contain chromosomal DNA? (A) the white colonies (B) the blue colonies (C)half the total colonies (D) none of the colonies
38. Antibodies can be used as a probe for which of the following techniques? (A) Western blotting (B) Northern blotting (C)Southern blotting (D) Eastern blotting
39. Why was the addition of methionine necessary during the production of somatostatin by recombinant bacteria? (A) so that it was compatible with the restriction enzyme (B) as a selectable marker (C)to allow the somatostatin to link to a bacterial protein (D) to increase the length of the peptide to make it more commercial
40. What is the purpose of the cyanogen bromide (CNBr) in the manufacture of insulin and somatostatin by recombinant bacteria? (A) allows for the uptake of the plasmid (B) enhances the activity of the restriction enzymes (C)creates sticky ends for integration into the plasmid (D) cleaves the protein from the β-galactosidase protein
41. Bioremediation has been used to treat which of the following? (A) oil spills (B) sewage (C)pesticides (D) all of the answers have been successfully remediated
42. Cells that have undergone homologous recombination for gene replacement would have which of the following gene combinations? (A) only the cloned gene (B) only the original gene (C)both the cloned and original gene (D) neither the cloned or original gene
43. Which of the following terms best describes how the components of a genome interact to produce an organism's traits? (A) proteomics (B) functional genomics (C)structural genomics (D) genomics
44. _____ involves an examination of how the proteins encoded by genes interact to produce cell and tissue types. (A) Proteomics (B) Functional genomics (C)Structural genomics (D) Genomics
45. The majority of human cancers are caused by _____(A) viral infections (B) inherited mutations (C)spontaneous mutations (D) carcinogens
46. A gene that promotes the development of cancer is called an_____ . (A) clone (B) ACV (C)mutagen (D) oncogene
47. The first acutely transforming virus to be isolated was _____(A) RSV in chickens (B) Hepatitis B SV40 in humans (C)SSV in monkeys (D) ALV in mice
48. Who was the first to propose that species were the result of isolating mechanisms? (A) Darwin (B) Wallace (C)Dobzhansky (D) Morgan
49. The modern understanding of evolution, or the Neo-Darwinean theory, is based on the work of what individual? (A) Morgan (B) Wallace (C)Sturtevant (D) Dobzhansky
50. Which of the following is not a prezygotic isolating mechanism? (A) temporal isolation (B) habitat isolation (C)mechanical isolation (D) hybrid inviability
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