12. What is the effect on the activity of eukaryotic     RNA polymerase I     if     TAF1 is        deleted     from the promoter?
(A) Polymerase I will not form the preinitiation complex.
(B) Phosphorylation of the DNA-binding domain will be impaired.
(C) Transcription elongation will be slowed.
(D) Polymerase I will not form the preinitiation complex and phosphorylation of the DNA-binding domain will be impaired are correct.
(E) None of the choices is correct.

17. An experiment was designed to obtain nonspecific transcription from both strands of a DNA molecule. Which of the following strategies would be most effective in achieving this? (A) Use intact DNA. (B) Add the CAP protein. (C) Remove the sigma-factor from RNA polymerase. (D) Include the RNA holoenzyme in the reaction. (E) Enrich the preparation with sigma subunit.

18. Which of the following statements is     not true     about the cro gene? (A) It must be stimulated during the lytic cycle. (B) Its product represses λ repressor activity. (C) It is adjacent to the cII gene. (D) It codes for a repressor of the cI gene. (E) cro activation is necessary for lysogeny.

19. Which of the following descriptions is     not correct    ? (A) Attenuation causes the length of the RNA molecules to be significantly shortened. (B) Arabinose can derepress the ara operon by causing AraC to loosen its attachment to araO2 and to bind to araI2 instead. (C) Recent experimental evidence has shown that three lac operator sequences are needed for maximal expression. (D) A riboswitch is usually a region in DNA that contains an aptamer and an expression platform. (E) The two dimmers in a lac repressor tetramer interact with the major groove of the DNA.

20. Which of the following techniques is most useful in demonstrating that CII and RNA polymerase bind to the opposite side of the helix in the PRE region? (A) DMS footprinting experiment. (B) DNase footprinting experiment. (C) Run-off transcription assay. (D) Density gradient centrifugation. (E) Filter binding assay.

21. Place the following in the order that they occur during transcription initiation: 1 - formation of open complex; 2 - formation of closed complex; 3 - promoter clearance; 4 - synthesis of about 10 nucleotides (A) 1, 2, 3, 4. (B) 2, 1, 4, 3. (C) 2, 1, 3, 4. (D) 3, 1, 2, 4. (E) 3, 2, 1, 4.

22. Select the     correct     statement about enhancers? (A) They are proteins that promote transcription of RNA. (B) They bind protein factors and stimulate transcription. (C) They are nonpromoter protein elements. (D) They stimulate the binding of repressor to DNA. (E) They are usually found downstream of the genes they influence.

1. Which of the following      is not true      concerning immunoglobulin gene recombination signal sequences? (A) There is a conserved heptamer. (B) There is a conserved nonamer. (C) The conserved sequences are separated by a nonconserved sequence of either a 12 bp or a 23 bp sequence. (D) Recombination occurs between a 12 bp signal and a 23 bp signal. (E) Recombination only occurs between two heptamers.

2. Which of the following molecules serves as a primer for reverse transcriptase during retroviral replication? (A) host snRNA (B) host tRNA (C) host ribosomal DNA (D) viral RNA (E) viral protein

3. In the E. coli RecBCD pathway, in order for homologous recombination to occur, which of the following proteins coats the single stranded DNA tail produced by exonuclease activity? (A) RecA (B) RecB (C) RecC (D) RecD (E) RuvB

4. Put the following steps of E. coli primosome assembly in the correct order. (1) Primase binds. (2) DnaA binds to oriC at dnaA boxes. (3) DnaB binds to the open complex. (4) DnaA, RNA polymerase, and HU protein melt the DNA. (A) 2, 4, 1, 3 (B) 2, 4, 3, 1 (C) 3, 4, 1, 2 (D) 4, 1, 2, 3 (E) 4, 2, 1, 3

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