18. Which of the following method(s) can be used for functionally inactivating a gene without altering its sequence?
(A) dominant negative constructs.
(B) RNA interference.
(C) gene knockout.
(D) a and b.
(E) b and c.

19. Why Chargaff's Rule (A+G = C+T) is     NOT     a universal rule? (A) Because genetic material of some marine bacteria doesn't obey it. (B) Because genetics material of O x174 doesn't obey it. (C) Because genetic material of Pneuococcus doesn't obey it. (D) a and b. (E) b and c.

20. Which of the following statement(s) is correct about enhancers? (A) They bind protein factors and stimulate transcription. (B) They are non-promoter protein elements. (C) They stimulate the binding of repressor to DNA. (D) a and b. (E) b and c.

21. In E. coli glucose represses the gene expression of many sugar utilization genes (ie lactose operon). Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. The glucose effect is mediated by the operator site of the lactose operon.  II. The glucose effect is mediated by the lactose repressor. III. The glucose effect is mediated by a negative regulation. IV. The glucose effect is mediated by the concentration of cAMP. (A) III (B) IV (C) I and II (D) III and IV (E) I, II and III

22. Which of the following is NOT used in regulating eukaryotic gene expression. I. Operons with polycistronic mRNA.  II. Splicing precursor mRNA differently.  III. Controlling transcription with specific transcription factors. IV. Inactivating or altering DNA. (A) I (B) III (C) IV (D) I and II (E) II and IV

23. Which of the following in NOT true for telomeres? I. Hairpin DNA configurations. II. Repeated sequence.  III. Template-free sequence additions. IV. The length of telomere is regulated. (A) I (B) III (C) IV (D) II and IV (E) III and IV

24. Which of the following mechanisms can be used to deal with aberrant termination in eukaryotes? I. tmRNA-mediated ribosome rescue. II. exosome-mediated degradation. III. nonsense-mediated RNA decay. IV. nonsense-associated altered splicing. (A) I, II and III (B) I, II and IV (C) I, III and IV (D) II, III and IV (E) I, II, III and IV

25. An enzyme isolated from rat liver has 192 amino acid residues and is coded by a gene with 1,440 bp. Which of the following statement is correct according to the above mentioned data? I. The enzyme is not fully synthesized. II. The enzyme is coded by 576 bases out of 1440 bases.  III. The coding sequence of enzyme contains non-coding sequence of the length 764 bases. IV. The extra size of the gene is because of the presence of untranslated region present on the gene. (A) I and II (B) II and III (C) II and IV (D) I and IV (E) III and IV

26. Which of the following reagents are components of LB medium?. I. Bacto agar. II. Bacto tryptone. III. Beef extract. IV. Sodium chloride. V. Yeast extract. (A) I, II and III (B) I, III and IV (C) II, III and IV (D) II, IV and V (E) III, IV and V

1. Which of the following statements is not true about the rho-dependent termination? (A) Rho-dependent terminators consist of an inverted repeat followed immediately by a T-rich region in the non-template strand of the gene. (B) Rho is a hexamer of identical subunits, each of which has ATPase activity. (C) Rho has RNA-DNA helicase activity. (D) Rho is able to bind to RNA at a rho loading site. (E) Rho causes production of shorter transcripts.

2. Which of the following descriptions about infection of E. coli by phage λ is     not correct    ? (A) The cro gene is stimulated during the lytic cycle of λ infection. (B) CII protects CIII against cellular proteases and thus is important for lytic cycle induction during λ infection. (C) N is an antiterminator that permits RNA polymerase to ignore the terminators at the ends of the immediate early genes and continue transcribing into the delayed early genes. (D) Q is an anti-terminator which permits transcription of the late genes during the lytic cycle of infection. (E) λ repressor can stimulate its own synthesis by activating (a promoter for repressor maintenance).

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