18. Which of the following statements about amino acid residues is correct? ① Phenylalanine has UV absorption at 260 nm. ② Glycine has a positive net charge at acidic solutions. ③ The side chain of serine cannot be ionized. ④ Isoleucine and leucine have the same molecular weight. ⑤ Cysteine can be oxidized to form cystine.
(A) ①②③
(B) ①③④
(C) ①④⑤
(D) ②④⑤
(E) ③④⑤

19. Which intermediate is formed during the carboxylation of propionyl-CoA by propionyl-CoA carboxylase? (A) Acetyl-CoA (B) Citrate (C) Succinyl-CoA (D) Pyruvate (E) Carboxybiotin

20. Which of the following statements correctly describes the role of hormones in the coordinated regulation of glycolysis and gluconeogenesis in liver? (A) Glucagon stimulates glycolysis and inhibits gluconeogenesis. (B) Insulin stimulates gluconeogenesis and inhibits glycolysis. (C) Glucagon decreases the levels of fructose-2,6-bisphosphate and inhibits glycolysis. (D) Insulin increases the levels of fructose-2,6-bisphosphate and inhibits glycolysis. (E) Epinephrine inhibits both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis.

21. Which of the following substances is necessary for the synthesis of palmitate? ① FADH2 ② Malonyl-CoA ③ NADPH ④ NADH ⑤ Acetyl-CoA (A) ①②③ (B) ①②④ (C) ①④⑤ (D) ②③⑤ (E) ①②⑤

22. Which of the following enzyme-catalyzed steps in glycolysis is performed by different enzymes in gluconeogenesis?  ① Hexokinase ② Pyruvate kinase ③ Aldolase ④ Phosphofructokinase ⑤ Phosphoglycerate kinase (A) ①②③ (B) ②③④ (C) ①②④ (D) ②③⑤ (E) ①②⑤

23. Which of the following cofactors is essential for the activity of several key enzymes in glycolysis, primarily by forming a complex with ATP? (A) Zinc ion (B) Cobalamin (Vitamin ) (C) Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) (D) Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) (E) Magnesium ion

24. Which protein complex in the mitochondrial electron transport chain has the largest molecular weight and is also inhibited by rotenone? (A) Complex I (NADH: ubiquinone oxidoreductase) (B) Complex II (Succinate dehydrogenase) (C) Complex III (Cytochrome bc₁ complex) (D) Complex IV (Cytochrome oxidase) (E) Complex V (ATP synthase)

25. Which molecule plays a key regulatory role in glycolysis, fat metabolism, and the pentose phosphate pathway (PPP)? (A) Fructose 6-bisphosphate (B) Xylulose 5-phosphate (C) Citrate (D) Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) (E) NADPH

26. RNA is more susceptible to hydrolytic cleavage than DNA due to structural differences. Which of the following best explains its increased instability? (A) RNA lacks complementary base pairing, reducing structural stability. (B) RNA contains uracil instead of thymine, making it more susceptible to degradation. (C) RNA lacks the double-helix structure of DNA, reducing protection from external damage. (D) RNA is more chemically reactive than DNA due to its ribose sugar. (E) The 2'-hydroxyl (-OH) group in RNA facilitates self-cleavage under alkaline conditions.

27. Which statement about histones is correct? ① Histones are negatively charged proteins that stabilize the DNA double helix. ② Lysine and arginine residues of histones can be methylated.  ③ Histone octamer contains H2A, H2B, H3, and H4. ④ Deacetylation of histones is not involved in epigenetic regulation. ⑤ H1 is involved in linking nucleosomes. (A) ①②③ (B) ①③④ (C) ②③④ (D) ②③⑤ (E) ③④⑤

28. What is the primary function of reverse transcriptases in retroviruses? (A) To synthesize RNA from a DNA template (B) To convert RNA genomes into double-stranded DNA (C) To degrade viral RNA (D) To synthesize telomere ends of chromosomes (E) To insert RNA introns into DNA genes

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