22. A 4.0 g sample of solid NaOH is dissolved in enough water to prepare 1.0 L of aqueous solution. What is the approximated osmotic pressure of this solution at 25°C?
(A) 2.1 atm
(B) 2.4 atm
(C) 3.6 atm
(D) 4.4 atm
(E) 4.9 atm

23. Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing boiling point: SnCl₄, SnBr₄, and SnI₄. (A) SnCl₄ < SnBr₄ < SnI₄. (B) SnI₄ < SnBr₄ < SnCl₄. (C) SnBr₄ < SnI₄ < SnCl₄. (D) SnCl₄ < SnI₄ < SnBr₄. (E) SnI₄ < SnCl₄ < SnBr₄.

24. Which of the following coordination compounds forms a precipitate when treated with aqueous AgNO₃? (A) Na₃[CrCl₆] (B) [Cr(NH₃)₃Cl₃] (C) Na₃[Cr(CN)₅Cl] (D) [Cr(NH₃)₆]Cl₃

25. How many isomers does C₃H₆Br₂ have? Count enantiomers separately. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6 

26. Which of the following statements about isotopes are correct? (A) Different isotopes of the same element contain different numbers of electrons. (B) The mass number of an isotope equals the total number of protons and neutrons in its nucleus. (C) The atomic masses of carbon-12 and carbon-13 are exactly 12 u and 13 u, respectively. (D) The atomic mass listed for an element in the periodic table is a weighted average of the masses of its naturally occurring isotopes. (E) Isotopes are represented by a subscript mass number to the left of the element symbol, for example, ²³⁵U.

27. Which of the following oxidation-number assignments are entirely correct? (A) Hydrogen: 0 in H₂, +1 in H₂O, and -1 in LiAlH₄. (B) Nitrogen: -3 in NH₃, -1 in N₂O, and +4 in NO₂. (C) Oxygen: 0 in O₃, -1 in K₂O₂, and -2 in H₂O. (D) Sulfur: 0 in S₈, -2 in Na₂S, and +4 in SO₃²⁻. (E) Bromine: 0 in Br₂(l), -1 in NaBr, and +5 in HBrO₃.

28. Which of the following statements about ideal gases and real gases are correct? (A) The assumptions of the ideal-gas model include negligible molecular volume and the absence of intermolecular forces. (B) The molar volume of an ideal gas is about 22.4 L/mol at standard temperature and pressure (STP), where STP corresponds to 1 atm and 25°C. (C) For a fixed amount of gas in a rigid container, the pressure approximately doubles when the temperature increases from 100°C to 200°C. (D) Neon behaves more ideally than ammonia under the same conditions. (E) The lower the pressure and the lower the temperature, the more closely a real gas approaches ideal-gas behavior.

29. Which of the following statements regarding the reaction quotient (Q) and equilibrium constant (K) are correct? (A) K is never smaller than Q. (B) For a reversible reaction in a closed system, Q gradually approaches K as equilibrium is established. (C) If Q > 1, the reaction always proceeds in the reverse direction. (D) If K > Q, the reaction proceeds in the forward direction to reach equilibrium. (E) At constant temperature, Q may change with time while K remains constant.

30. The pH of an aqueous solution at 25°C is raised from 2.0 to 5.0. Which statements are true? (A) The final [OH⁻] is 1 × 10⁻⁹ M. (B) The [H⁺] decreases by a factor of 30. (C) The initial solution could be 0.010 M CH₃COOH. (D) The pOH decreases from 12.0 to 9.0. (E) The initial [H⁺] is 1 × 10⁻² M.

31. Which of the following statements about thermodynamic processes involving an ideal gas are correct? (A) In an isothermal process, ΔE = 0, and PV is a constant. (B) In an adiabatic process, q = 0, and PV is a constant. (C) In free expansion into a vacuum, the gas does no work. (D) The maximum work from an isothermal expansion is obtained only when the process is carried out reversibly through infinitesimal changes. (E) In a cyclic process, all state functions return to their initial values, and the overall work and heat are always zero.

32. Which of the following species are paramagnetic? (A) O₂ (B) B₂ (C) N₂ (D) O₂⁺ (E) F₂⁺

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