33. The function of bacterial EF-Ts is to
(A) Convert EF-Tu GDP to an active form.
(B) Convert GTP to GDP.
(C) Allow binding of aminoacyl-tRNAs to the A site of the ribosome.
(D) Move the peptidyl-tRNA from the A site to the P site.
(E) Deacylate tRNAs.

1. An open reading frame (ORF) that is not likely to encode a functional polypeptide usually has the following feature not found in other ORF. (A) It has many termination codons. (B) It has many coding triplets before a termination codon. (C) It has an initiation codon. (D) It encodes functional polypeptides in the other two reading frames of the same sequence. (E) It is never transcribed.

2. A class of mutations that results in multiple contiguous amino acid changes in a protein is probably caused by the following type of mutation. (A) frameshift. (B) transversion. (C) transition. (D) RNAi. (E) base analogue.

3. The condensed state of nucleic acids in cells results from its binding to what type of proteins? (A) amphipathic (B) acidic (C) basic (D) hydrophilic

4. Regions flanking centromeres in chromosomes are rich in: (A) unique sequence DNA and euchromatin (B) unique sequence DNA and heterochromatin (C) satellite DNA and euchromatin (D) satellite DNA and heterochromatin

5. Which of the following is a false statement about telomerase? (A) dCTP and dATP are not substrates of telomerase. (B) The RNA component of telomerase serves as the template for telomere synthesis. (C) Telomerase uses the 5'-end of the telomere to prime telomere synthesis (D) The protein component of telomerase is a reverse transcriptase.

6. The transient covalent modification of the N-terminal tails of the core histone proteins: (A) facilitates the process of transcription and DNA replication (B) disrupts nucleosome/DNA interaction by the introduction of a net positive charge on the nucleosomes. (C) is specific for the R groups of valine, isoleucine and alanine. (D) exclusively involve the histone tails of H2A and H2B. (E) answers A and B are correct

7. Which of the following features are common to essentially all (prokaryotic, eukaryotic, viral) replication origins? (A) Origin sequences have inverted repeats that form stable secondary structures for assembly of the replication apparatus. (B) Origins are unique DNA segments that often contain multiple short repeated sequences involved in binding to replication proteins. (C) DNA polymerase is able to recognize promoter-like sequences at the replication origins. (D) The origin-flanking sequences are G-C rich to stabilize the DNA-protein initiation complex.

8. At normal growth temperature (37°C), how long does it take for complete replication of the (E) coli chromosome? (A) 20 minutes (B) 40 minutes (C) 60 minutes (D) 90 minutes

9. Transfer of the F factor from one bacterial cell to another occurs as: (A) Single-stranded DNA generated by rolling circle replication in the donor cell. (B) Single-stranded DNA generated by unidirectional replication in the donor cell. (C) Double-stranded DNA generated by rolling circle replication in the donor cell. (D) Double-stranded DNA generated by unidirectional replication in the donor cell.

10. In September 2016, a baby was born with the DNA of two women (the mother and a donor) and a man (the father). The baby was conceived through the technique of so called "three-parent in vitro fertilization". Which of the following statement is correct: (A) The three parents provided DNA from nucleus, peroxisome and mitochondrion, respectively. (B) The nucleus was removed from the egg cell of a donor and the de-nucleated egg cell was then injected with the nuclear DNA from the mother's egg cell. (C) The technique was used because the mother has a genetic disease due to a mutation in the nuclear DNA. (D) The sperm provided the mitochondrial DNA.

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