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研究所、轉學考(插大)◆分子生物學題庫  下載題庫

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112 年 - [無官方正解]112 國立中山大學_碩士暨碩士在職專班招生考試_生科系碩士班乙組:分子生物學#113555　

1.1. What is the maximum absorption wavelength of DNA?
(A) ~200 nm.
(B) ~220 nm.
(C) ~240 nm.
(D) ~260 nm.
(E) ~280 nm.

2.2. Thymine in DNA is replaced by uracil in RNA. What is the structural difference between thymine and uracil?
(A) Thymine has one methy! group in its structure whereas uracil does not.
(B) Thymine has one primary amine group in its structure whereas uracil does not.
(C) Uracil has one methy! group in its structure whereas thymine does not.
(D) Uracil has one primary amine group in its structure whereas thymine does not.
(E) Uracil has a two-ringed structure, whereas thymine has a single-ringed structure.

3.3. Which of the following statements is the correct regarding genome structure?
(A) All the chromosomes in prokaryotic cells are circular.
(B) Every prokaryotic cell contains only one chromosome.
(C) Genome size is the total number of base pairs in one copy of a haploid genome.
(D) An organism's complexity is directly proportional to its genome size.
(E) The protein-coding genes comprise ~1.5% of the Escherichia coli genome.

4.5. Which of the following DNA polymerases removes primers in Escherichia coli?
(A) DNA polymerase I.
(B) DNA polymerase II.
(C) DNA polymerase III.
(D) DNA polymerase IV.
(E) DNA polymerase V.

5.4.Which of the following statements is correct regarding repetitive elements?
(A) Repetitive elements comprise ~10% of the human genome sequences.
(B) Most interspersed repeats have repeat units of smaller than 100 base pairs.
(C) Microsatellites are interspersed repeats.
(D) Interspersed repeats are mostly transposable elements.
(E) Short-interspersed nuclear elements are DNA transposons.

6.6. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the replication folk?
(A) Topoisomerase acts to separate two strands of duplex DNA.
(B) Synthesis of the two strands of DNA is not simultaneous.
(C) The lagging strand is the strand on which the polymerase moves in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork.
(D) The DNA fragment formed on the lagging strand is called the Okazaki fragment.
(E) Primase acts to join breaks in the phosphodiester backbone of DNA.

7.7.Telomerase:
(A) solves the end replication problem of leading-strand synthesis.
(B) uses endogenous DNA as template.
(C) acts to extend the 3' end of the telomere.
(D) synthesizes double-stranded DNA.
(E) is present in all the eukaryotes.

8.8.Direct uptake of exogenous naked DNA through the cell membrane is called:
(A) conjugation.
(B) injection.
(C) infection.
(D) transformation.
(E) transduction.

9.9.Which of the following is the correct pair between the type and the cause of DNA damage?
(A) Thymine dimer: ethidium bromide.
(B) Depurination: 5-bromouracil.
(C) Deamination: ultraviolet illumination.
(D) Double-strand breaks: y-radiation.
(E) Deletion or addition of a base pair: nitrous acid.

10.10. Histones are subject to various modifications. Which of the following modifications does NOT appear in histones?
(A) Methylation.
(B) Phosphorylation.
(C) Acetylation.
(D) Ubiquitinoylation.
(E) Carboxylation.

11.11.Which of the following is the correct pair between the recombinase and the recombination site?
(A) Bacteriophage X integrase: res site.
(B) Phage P1 Cre: lox site.
(C) Escherichia coli XerC and XerD: att site.
(D) Yeast FLP: ori site.
(E) Salmonella Hin invertase: int site.

12.12. Which of the following complexes specifically recognizes Holliday junctions and promotes branch migration?
(A) RecBCD complex.
(B) UvrABC complex.
(C) ClpPR complex.
(D) RuvAB complex.
(E) RhlAB complex.

13.13. Transcription initiation involves recognition of consensus sequences by specific regions/domains of the RNA polymerase in Escherichia coli. Which of the following regions or domains recognizes the -10 promoter element?
(A) o factor region 2.
(B) o factor region 3.
(C) o factor region 4.
(D) C-terminal domain of subunit o.
(E) N-terminal domain of subunit a.

14.14. The structural feature of mRNA at the intrinsic transcription terminator in prokaryotes is a hairpin structure followed by:
(A) an A-rich sequence.
(B) a C-rich sequence.
(C) a G-rich sequence.
(D) a U-rich sequence.
(E) an AU-rich sequence.

15.15. Which of the following small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs) recognizes the 5' splice site?
(A) U1.
(B) U2.
(C) U4.
(D) U5.
(E) U6.

16.16. A special form of RNA editing found in the mitochondria of trypanosomes and mediated by guide RNAs is deletion and insertion of:
(A) adenine.
(B) uracil.
(C) guanine.
(D) cytosine.
(E) inosine.

17.17. The Drosophila Dscam gene contains 48 alternative forms of exon 6. What is the mechanism for having only one exon 6 variant in the mature mRNA?
(A) Splicing factors cannot bind to more than one splicing site due to steric hindrance.
(B) Spliced mRNA with more than one exon 6 variant leads to nonsense-mediated RNA decay.
(C) The docking site binds to only one selector sequence located upstream of the exon6 variant.
(D) Each exon 6 variant contains different sequences at the splicing sites.
(E) Only the exon 6 variant that recruits enough SR proteins is retained in the mature RNA.

18.18. What is the function of the Shine-Dalgarno sequence?
(A) It recruits the RNA polymerase.
(B) It recruits the core transcription factors.
(C) It recruits the initiation factors
(D) It recruits the large ribosomal subunit.
(E) It recruits the small ribosomal subunit.

19.19. The first step of tRNA charging catalyzed by the aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase is:
(A) Reaction of the amino acid with ATP.
(B) Reaction of the amino acid with GTP.
(C) Transfer of the amino acid to the 3' end of tRNA.
(D) Transfer of the amino acid to the 5' end of tRNA.
(E) Binding of the amino acid to the anticodon loop.

20.20. Which of the following statements is correct regarding upstream open reading frames (uORFs)?
(A) uORFs can be found in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes.
(B) uORFs can be found in both 5' and 3' untranslated regions.
(C) The presence of uORFs typically causes an increase in protein expression.
(D) Translation of the open reading frame (ORF) encoding the yeast activator Gcn4 is inhibited when amino acids are deficient, because the ribosome moves slowly along the uORFs and then dissociates.
(E) The size of uORFs is typically more than 20 codons.

21.21. Which of the following bacterial elongation factors (EFs) catalyzes translocation of the tRNA and mRNA and causes conformational changes of the ribosome?
(A) EF-Tu.
(B) EF-Ts.
(C) EF-G.
(D) EF-P.
(E) EF-4.

22.22. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the wobble base pair?
(A) The wobble base pair follows Watson-Crick base pair rules.
(B) The wobble base pair takes place at 3' end of the tRNA anticodon.
(C) Hypoxanthine (I) can pair with uracil (U), adenine ( A ), or cytosine ( C ).
(D) Guanine (G) can pair with adenine ( A ) or cytosine ( C ).
(E) The Wobble hypothesis predicts that the minimum requirement to satisfy all possible codons is 21 tRNAs.

23.23 Which of the following statements is correct regarding translation termination in eukaryotes?
(A) The structure and amino acid sequence of the Class I eukaryotic release factors (eRFs) are similar with those of the Class I release factors in prokaryotes.
(B) eRF1 induces release of the nascent polypeptide from the peptidy1-transferase center.
(C) Rlil is an ATP-binding protein and brings eRF 1 to the ribosome.
(D) eRF3 is a GTP-binding protein and catalyzes release of eRF1 from the A-site.
(E) Neither eRF1 nor eRF3 participates in separation of the large and small ribosomal subunits after release of the nascent polypeptide.

24.24. Both the catabolite activator protein (CAP) and the Lac repressor can bind DNA, but why does CAP facilitate transcription while the Lac repressor represses transcription?
(A) CAP and the Lac repressor use different structural motifs to bind DNA.
(B) CAP binds to the region overlapping the promoter, while the Lac repressor binds to the region at a distance from the promoter.
(C) The Lac repressor can interact with the RNA polymerase to inhibit transcription.
(D) CAP has an activating surface that recruits the RNA polymerase.
(E) CAP binds as a homodimer, while the Lac repressor binds as a homotetramer.

25.25. Which of the following is the key bacteriophage X regulatory protein that acts as an activator and establishes lysogeny upon infection of a new host?
(A) CI.
(B) CI.
(C) CIII.
(D) Cro.
(E) Q

26.26. Which of the following DNA binding domains or motifs is found in most bacterial regulatory proteins?
(A) Zinc-finger domain.
(B) Basic leucine zipper motif.
(C) AT-hook motif.
(D) Helix-turn-helix motif.
(E) Helix-loop-helix motif.

27.27. High throughput sequencing technologies become powerful tools to study molecular biology on a genome-wide scale. Which of the following sequencing techniques is used to assess the translational status?
(A) RNA binding protein immunoprecipitation-sequencing (RIP-Seq).
(B) Chromatin immunoprecipitation-sequencing (ChIP-Seq).
(C) Global run-on sequencing (GRO-Seq).
(D) 4-thiouridine sequencing (4sU-Seg).
(E) Ribosome sequencing (Ribo-Seq).

28.28. Which of the following statements is correct regarding riboswitches?
(A) Most riboswitches are trans-regulatory elements.
(B) Riboswitches can regulate gene expression at both transcriptional and translational levels.
(C) The riboswitch region that binds the small-molecule ligand is called the receptor.
(D) Riboswitches are typically found downstream of genes involved in the synthesis of the metabolite ligand recognized by the riboswitch.
(E) Riboswitches can mediate rho-dependent transcription termination.

29.29. Which of the following statements is correct regarding clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR)?
(A) CRISPR is found in the eukaryotic genome.
(B) A CRISPR locus consists of 2 major components: repeated and spacer sequences.
(C) The spacer sequences are acquired from infecting viruses.
(D) Cas1 and Cas2 are involved in processing of CRISPR RNA (crRNA).
(E) The CRISPR/Cas6 system is currently the most widely utilized tool for genome

30.30. Which of the following statements is correct regarding small RNA-mediated silencing pathways in eukaryotes?
(A) Piwi-interaction RNAs (piRNAs) are expressed predominantly in vegetative cells.
(B) Both small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) and microRNAs (miRNAs) are generated from longer RNA molecules by Dicer.
(C) The major component of the RNA-induced silencing complex is called Drosha.
(D) The size of small RNAs is typically in the range of 30-40 nucleotides.
(E) The miRNA is typically highly specific with only one mRNA target. editing.

31.31. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the central dogma of molecular biology, as firstly stated by Francis Crick in 1957?
(A) The sequential information can be transferred from DNA to RNA.
(B) The sequential information can be transferred from RNA to DNA.
(C) The sequential information can be transferred from RNA to protein.
(D) The sequential information can be transferred from protein to RNA.
(E) The sequential information can be transferred from protein to protein.

32.32. Which of the following histones form a tetramer in the first step of the assembly of a nucleosome?
(A) H1.
(B) H2A.
(C) H2B.
(D) H3.
(E) H4.

33.33. Which of the following features are correct regarding the mechanism of DNA polymerase?
(A) DNA polymerase uses a single active site to catalyze the addition of any of the four deoxynucleoside triphosphates.
(B) Steric constraints prevent DNA polymerase from using ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrate.
(C) The thumb domain of DNA polymerase is intimately involved in catalysis.
(D) Processivity is a crucial character for DNA polymerase and defines the average number of nucleotides added per template binding event.
(E) Removal of incorrectly base-paired nucleotides is mediated by intrinsic endonuclease activity of DNA polymerase.

34.34. Which of the following pairs between the type of DNA damage repair and the corresponding enzyme are correct?
(A) Nucleotide excision repair: DNA glycosylase.
(B) Photoreactivation: DNA photolyase.
(C) Base excision repair: UvTABC endonuclease.
(D) Mismatch repair: MutS and MutL.
(E) Double-strand break repair: Rec A recombinase.

35.35. Which of the following mechanistic features of RNA polymerase are correct?
(A) RNA polymerase acts to make RNA copies from the whole genome.
(B) RNA polymerase uses DNA as a template for RNA synthesis.
(C) RNA polymerase needs a primer for initiation of RNA synthesis.
(D) The error rate of RNA polymerase is lower than that of DNA polymerase.
(E) Prokaryotic mRNA and non-coding RNA are synthesized by the same RNA polymerase.

36.36. Which of the following eukaryotic RNA polymerases transcribe ribosomal RNA?
(A) RNA polymerase I.
(B) RNA polymerase I.
(C) RNA polymerase III.
(D) RNA polymerase IV.
(E) RNA polymerase V.

37.37. Which of the following processes are associated with phosphorylation of the C- terminal domain (CTD) tail of the eukaryotic RNA polymerase II?
(A) Transcription preinitiation.
(B) Promoter escape.
(C) Transcription elongation.
(D) RNA 5' capping.
(E) RNA splicing.

38.38. Which of the following statements are correct regarding mRNA?
(A) Each mRNA has at least one open reading frame (ORF).
(B) Many eukaryotic mRNAs are polycistronic.
(C) Polycistronic mRNAs usually encode proteins involved in related functions.
(D) The 5' cap is required to recruit ribosome to the eukaryotic mRNA.
(E) The Kozak sequence acts as a ribosome binding site of eukaryotic mRNA.

39.

39. Three operators (O_R1, O_R2, O_R3) are located between the P_R and P_RMpromoters in the genome of bacteriophage λ. Which of the following are correct regarding these three operators?
(A) O_R1 is located within P_R, while O_R3 is located within PRM.
(B) All three operators can bind to either λ repressor or Cro.
(C) The binding affinity of the three operators to Cro is O_R1 ＞ O_R2 ＞ O_R3.
(D) X repressor at O_R1 helps the repressor bind to O_R2 by cooperative binding.
(E) Binding of λ repressor to O_R3leads to increase in the λ repressor gene expression.

40.40. Which of the following processes belong to epigenetic regulation?
(A) Maintenance of the lysogenic state of bacteriophage λ through cell division.
(B) Maintenance of the pattern of point mutations through cell division.
(C) Maintenance of the pattern of DNA methylation through cell division.
(D) Maintenance of the state of chromatin modification through generations.
(E) Expression of a gene controlled by an activator which is active only in the presence of a given inducer.