114年 - 114 學士後醫學系招生考試試題：物理及化學#126679

1. A particle moves in a track and its speed are recorded and plotted in
the figure. Which statement is correct?

(A) It is stationary from t=0.0 to t=0.5 second.
(B) It has maximum acceleration at t=1.5 seconds.
(C) No external force acting on the particle at t＞2.5 seconds.
(D) The maximum force received by this particle is at t=1.5 seconds.
(E) This particle received a constant force against its motion during 1.0 to 2.0 seconds.

2. A particle moves in simple harmonic motion according to x = 2sin(15t), where x is in meters and t is in seconds. Its maximum velocity in m/s is _____.
(A) 30 sin(15t) (B) 2 cos(15t) (C) 15
(D) 30 (E) None of the above.

3. Consider a very small hole in the bottom of a tank 20 cm in diameter filled with water to a height
of 50 cm. Find the speed at which the water exits the tank through the hole.
(A) 3.1 m/s (B) 9.8 m/s (C) 31.3 m/s (D) 34.9 m/s (E) 980 m/s

4. A small object of mass m is suspended from a string of length L . The
gravitational acceleration is g. The object revolves in a horizontal circle of
radius r with constant speed. Find the period T of revolution.
(A) (B) (C)
(D) (E)

5. A carnival merry-go-round rotates about a vertical axis at a constant rate. A man standing on the
edge has a constant speed of 3.7 m/s and a centripetal acceleration of magnitude 1.8 m/s².
Position vector locates him relative to the rotation axis. What is the magnitude of ?
(A) 3.5 m (B) 5.6 m (C) 6.4 m (D) 7.6 m (E) 12.4 m

6. A 2 kg object is subjected to three forces that give it an acceleration = (−8 m  ⁄s² )+
(6 m/s²) . ff two of the three forces are and
,find the third force.
(A) (B) (C)
(D) (E)

7. n moles of gas in a container of volume at temperature T expands rapidly into an evacuated
region after a membrane is broken. The final volume of the gas-occupied space is . What is the
change in thermal energy? (The universal gas constant is R.)
(A) (B) (C)
(D) (E)

8. A medical defibrillator stores 320 J in a 40.0 F capacitor. What is the voltage across the capacitor?
(A) 2.8 V (B) 4.0 V (C) 2.8 kV (D) 4.0 kV (E) 2.8 MV

9. The figure shows three electric charges labeled Q₁, Q₂, Q₃, and some
electric field lines in the region surrounding the charges. What are the
signs of the three charges?

(A) Q₁ is negative, Q₂ is positive, Q₃ is negative.
(B) Q₁ is positive, Q₂ is positive, Q₃ is negative.
(C) Q₁ is positive, Q₂ is negative, Q₃ is positive.
(D) Q₁ is positive, Q₂ is negative, Q₃ is negative.
(E) Q₁ is negative, Q₂ is negative, Q₃ is negative.

10. A particle experiences a force given by F(x) = α - βx³. Find the potential energy U(x) of the particle.
(Assume that the zero of potential energy is located at x = 0.)
(A) (B) (C) U(x) = 3βx²
(D) U(x) = -3βx² (E) U(x) = -6βx

11. A DC voltage of 110 V is applied to a heater whose resistance is 15 Ohms when it is hot. At what
rate is electrical energy transferred to thermal energy _____.
(A) 807 W (B) 1650 W (C) 8150 W (D) 12375 W (E) 24750 W

12. A wave has an angular frequency of 110 rad/s and a wavelength of 1.8 m. Calculate the angular
wave number.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

13. A transverse wave traveling along a string transports energy at a rate r. If we want to double this
rate, we could increase the amplitude of the wave by a factor of _____.
(A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) √2 (E) √8

14. A 2.0 m string is fixed at both ends and tightened until the wave speed is 80 m/s. What is the frequency of the standing wave shown in the figure?
(A) 60 Hz (B) 120 Hz (C) 240 Hz (D) 360 Hz (E) 480 Hz

15. The speed of yellow light (from a sodium lamp) in a certain liquid is measured to be 1.92 × 10⁸m/s. What is the index of refraction of this liquid for the light?
(A) 1.49 (B) 1.53 (C) 1.56 (D) 1.62 (E) 1.67

16. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) The emission spectrum of hydrogen contains a discontinuum of colors.
(B) Diffraction produces both constructive and destructive interference.
(C) All matter exhibits both particle and wavelike characteristics.
(D) Niels Bohr developed a quantum model for the hydrogen atom.
(E) None of the above.

17. Which of the following statements is correct?
f. An excited atom can return to its ground state by emitting electromagnetic radiation.
ff. The energy of an atom is increased when electromagnetic radiation is emitted from it.
fff. The energy of electromagnetic radiation increases as its frequency increases.
fV. An electron in the n=4 state in the hydrogen atom can go to the n=2 state by emitting
electromagnetic radiation at the appropriate frequency.
V. The frequency and wavelength of electromagnetic radiation are inversely proportional to
each other.
(A) f, fff, fV, V (B) fff, V (C) f, ff, fff (D) fff, fV, V (E) f, ff, fV

18. Given values of the following acids:

What is the order of increasing base strength?
(A)(B)
(C) (D)
(E)

19. The molecular formula of the ion is , where X is an element from Group 6A. What is the hybridization of X atom?
(A) sp (B) sp² (C) sp³ (D) dsp³ (E) d²sp³

20. Which ion has the largest ionic size among the following?
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

21. Compare the following molecules, what is the order of decreasing bond order?
1. 2. N₂ 3.
(A) 1=2=3 (B) 3＞2＞1 (C) 1＞2＞3 (D) 2＞1=3 (E) 1=3＞2

22. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) BF₃ has 24 total valence electrons, is an exception to the octet rule, and has resonance.
(B) BF₃ has 24 total valence electrons, is an exception to the octet rule, and does not have
resonance.
(C) BF₃ has 24 total valence electrons, obeys the octet rule, and has resonance.
(D) BF₃ has 22 total valence electrons, is an exception to the octet rule, and does not have
resonance.
(E) BF₃ has 24 total valence electrons, obeys the octet rule, and does not have resonance.

23. Which chemical process gives beer its brown color?
(A) Maillard reaction (B) Caramelization (C) Oxidation of ethanol
(D) Hydrolysis of starch (E) All of above

24. Arrange the following bonds in order of decreasing polarity:
1. H-H 2. C-F 3. Al-F 4. N-O
(A) 1＞2＞3＞4 (B) 3＞2＞4＞1 (C) 1＞3＞2＞4
(D) 1＞4＞2＞3 (E) 3＞4＞2＞1

25. The density of a gas is 2 g/L at 3 atm and 27o
C. What is the molar mass of the gas (g/mol)?
(A) 1.48 (B) 32 (C) 149.6 (D) 9.3 (E) 16.4

26. Which of the following reactions does not involve oxidation-reduction?
(A) CH₄ + 3O₂→ 2H₂O + CO₂ (B) PCl₃ + Cl₂ →PCl₅
(C) 2Na + 2H₂O →2NaOH + H₂ (D) MnO₂ + 4HCl→ Cl₂ + 2H₂O + MnCl₂
(E) CO₂ + 2LiOH →Li2CO₃ + H₂O

27. Calculate the standard change in enthalpy for the reaction and select the correct answer: (A) exothermic reaction
(B) endothermic reaction
(C) no energy change for this reaction
(D) Lack of makes calculation impossible.
(E) None of the above.

28. Which of the following can be identified as a set of isotopes?
Atomic nuclei contain
I. 20 protons and 20 neutrons. II. 20 protons and 22 neutrons.
III. 21 protons and 19 neutrons. fV. 20 neutrons and 18 protons.
V. 21 protons and 20 neutrons.
(A) I, IV and II, V (B) I, II and III, fV (C) I, III and II, V
(D) II, IV and III, V (E) I, II and III, V

29. Which of the following represents the electron configuration for an excited state of an oxygen
atom?
(A) 1s²2s ²2p⁴ (B) 1s ²2s ²2p⁵ (C) 1s²2s²2p³3s¹
(D) 1s ²2s ²2p⁶ (E) 1s²2s²2p³

30. The nucleus decays to form by producing α and β particles. What is the number of β particles produced?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6 (E) 8

31. A 0.25 kg block oscillates on the end of the spring with a spring constant of 133.3 N/m. If the system has an energy of 6.0 J, then the amplitude of the oscillation is _____.
(A) 0.09 m (B) 0.15 m (C) 0.30 m (D) 0.54 m (E) 0.60 m

32. fn designing buildings to be erected in an area prone to earthquakes, what relationship should the designer try to achieve between the natural frequency of the building and the typical earthquake frequencies?
(A) The natural frequency of the building should be exactly the same as typical earthquake
frequencies.
(B) The natural frequency of the building should be very different from typical earthquake
frequencies.
(C) The natural frequency of the building should be almost the same as typical earthquake
frequencies but slightly higher.
(D) The natural frequency of the building should be almost the same as typical earthquake
frequencies but slightly lower.
(E) No need to consider.

33. A 2 kg object is attached to an ideal massless horizontal spring of spring constant 100.0 N/m and
is at rest on a frictionless horizontal table. The spring is aligned along the x-axis and is fixed to a
peg in the table. Suddenly this mass is struck by another 2 kg object traveling along the x-axis at 3 m/s, and the two masses stick together. What are the amplitude and period of the oscillations
that result from this collision?
(A) 0.30 m, 1.26 s (B) 0.30 m, 0.88 s (C) 0.42 m, 0.88 s
(D) 0.42 m, 1.26 s (E) 0.42 m, 5.00 s

34. Two blocks connected by a cord (of negligible mass) that passes over a frictionless
pulley (also of negligible mass). The arrangement is known as Atwood’s machine.
One block has mass m1=1.3 kg; the other has mass m2=2.8 kg. What is the magnitude
of the tension of the cord?

(A) 11.0 N (B) 12.8 N (C) 15.7 N (D) 17.7 N (E) 20.0 N

35. A stuntman drives a car (without negative lift) over the top of a hill, and the
cross section of which can be approximated by a circle of radius R =250 m. What is the greatest speed at which he can drive without the car
leaving the road at the top of the hill? (Gravitational acceleration g = 10 m/s²)

(A) 130 Km/h (B) 140 Km/h (C) 150 Km/h (D) 180 Km/h (E) 200 Km/h

36. A uniform and thin stick of mass (m) and length (l) is held vertically by two strings of negligible mass. fmmediately after one string is cut, what is the magnitude of linear acceleration of the middle of the stick? (The moment of inertia of the thin stick is ml²/3 for an axis through one end.)

(A) g/4 (B) g/2 (C) 3g/4 (D) g (E) 3g/2

37. A uniformly charged ring with a radius of α is placed on the xy plane
with its central axis aligned with the z-axis. ff the total charge on the ring is
Q, what is the electric field at z = z₀? (k = 1/4πε₀, = )

(A) (B) (C)
(D) (E)

38. A technician wearing a brass bracelet enclosing area 0.005 m² places her hand in a solenoid whose magnetic B-field is 7.0 T directed perpendicular to the plane of the bracelet. The resistance R around the bracelet’s circumference is 0.02 Ω. An unexpected power failure causes the field to drop to 1.5 T in a time interval of 20 ms. Estimate the power delivered to the bracelet.
(A) 23.6 W (B) 31.5 W (C) 47.3 W (D) 63.1 W (E) 94.6 W

39. The howler monkey is the loudest land animal and, under some circumstances, can be heard up to a distance of 8.9 km. Assume the acoustic output of a howler to be uniform in all directions and that the threshold of hearing is W/m². A juvenile howler monkey has an acoustic output of 63 μW. What is the ratio of the acoustic intensity produced by the juvenile howler to the reference intensity I₀, at a distance of 200 m?
(A) 63 (B) 125 (C) 175 (D) 250 (E) 375

40. A parallel-plate capacitor without dielectrics is charged with +Q₀ and -Q₀ on their two metal
plates, and the charging battery is disconnected. When a dielectric layer with a dielectric constant k (k ≥ 1) is inserted to fill the gap between the two metal plates, what is the bound charge on the surface of the dielectric layer in contact with the metal plate?
(A) Q₀(k − 1)/k (B) (k − 1)Q₀ (C) (2 − k)Q₀
(D) kQ₀/(k − 1) (E) Q₀/(k + 1)

41. The human ear canal is, on average, 2.5 cm long. ft is open to the outside and is closed at the other end by the eardrum. Estimate the frequencies (in the audible range)
of the standing waves in the ear canal. Recall that, at 20C, the speed of sound in air is about 343 m/s.

(A) 1715 Hz (B) 3430 Hz (C) 6860 Hz (D) 13720 Hz (E) 20580 Hz

42. The charge Q is -3.0 nC. How much charge q₁ is needed to bring
charge q2 into static equilibrium?

(A) -6 nC (B) 6 nC (C) 3 nC (D) 12 nC (E) -12 nC

43. A rectangular coil of N turns, each of width α and length b is in a
magnetic field B directed into the page, with only half of the coil in the
region of the magnetic field. The resistance of the coil is R. The coil can
be moved to the right, up or down. What is the magnitude of the induced current if the coil is moved with a speed v down?
(A) 4NBav/R (B) NBavR (C) 2NBav/R (D) 2NBav (E)NBav/R

44. The surface water temperature in tropical oceans is above 25℃
, and the deep-water temperature is about 4°C. If the Carnot engine is operated at these two temperatures, what is the maximum efficiency of this engine?
(A) 7 % (B) 9 % (C) 16 % (D) 84 % (E) 93 %

45. A cube of metal has an edge length of 10 cm. It has a density 3.0 g/cm³ and a specific heat 0.2cal/g°C. When the internal energy of the cube increases by 9000 cal, its temperature increases by _____.
(A) 9°C (B) 10°C (C) 12°C (D) 15°C (E) 20°C

46. Sound pressure level is defined as SPL(dB) = (P⁄P₀), where P is sound wave pressure
and P₀ = 20 μPa. SPL decreases 6 dB as a listener's distance doubles from the sound source. The
sound level is 110 dB at one meter away from the explosion of firecrackers. How far away would
it be needed to reduce the sound level to an acceptable level of 80 decibels?
(A) 5 m (B) 16 m (C) 32 m (D) 60 m (E) 100 m

47. A 5.0 L gas tank holds 1.7 mole of monoatomic helium (He) and 1.1 mole of diatomic oxygen (O₂), at a temperature of 260 K. The atomic masses of helium and oxygen are 4.0 g/mol and 16.0 g/mol, respectively. What is the ratio of the root-mean-square (thermal) speed of helium to that of oxygen?
(A) 1.4 (B) 2.0 (C) 2.8 (D) 4.0 (E) 5.6

48. A piece of thin uniform wire of mass m and length 3b is bent into an equilateral triangle. Find the moment of inertia of the wire triangle about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the triangle and passing through one of its vertices.
(A)(B) (C) (D)(E)

49. One way to measure blood flow when blood vessels are exposed during surgery is to use an
electromagnetic flowmeter. The device surrounds the blood vessel with an electromagnet to
create a magnetic field perpendicular to the blood flow. Since blood is a modest conductor, a
motional emf develops across the blood vessel. Given the vessel diameter d, magnetic field B,
and voltage V measured across the vessel, what is the volume flow rate of blood?
(A) πdV⁄(4B) (B) πdV⁄(2B) (C) πdV⁄B (D) 2πdV⁄B (E) 4πdV⁄B

50. Suppose that 1 mole of an ideal gas undergoes a free expansion to three times its initial volume.What is the change of entropy? (The universal gas constant is R.)
(A) 2R ln 2 (B) R ln 2 (C) R ln 3 (D) R ln 4 (E) 2R ln 4

51. A proton of mass m and charge q is in uniform circular motion perpendicular to a magnetic field
B . The radius of the circle is r. What is the speed of the proton?
(A) qBr/3m (B) 2qBr²/(2m(r + 1)) (C) qBr²/(2m(r + 1))(D) qBr/2m (E) qBr/m

52. During each heartbeat, approximately 70 cm3 of blood is pushed from the heart at the mean arterial pressure of 100 mmHg. By assuming 72 beats per minute, what is the amount of external power output of the heart?
(A) less than 0.20 W (B) 0.50 W (C) 0.84 W(D) 1.1 W (E) larger than 5.0 W

53. A square 10-turn coil with edge-length 50 cm carries a current of 2 A. ft lies in the xy plane with magnetic moment in the z direction. ft is placed in a uniform magnetic field
(T). What is the magnetic potential energy of the coil in the magnetic field?
(A) -2 Joule (B) -1.5 Joule (C) 1.5 Joule (D) 2 Joule (E) 2.4 Joule

54. An observer on the Earth measures the speed of spacecraft A to be 0.50c and the speed of spacecraft B to be -0.40c. What is the velocity of spacecraft B as observed by the crew on spacecraft A? (Here c is the
speed of light. The Lorentz velocity transformation is )
(A) -c/6 (B) -3c/5 (C) -2c/5 (D) -c/4 (E) -3c/4

55. Two sources of light illuminate a double slit simultaneously. One has wavelength 570 nm and the second has an unknown wavelength. The fifth bright fringe (m=5) of the unknown wavelength overlaps the forth bright fringe (m=4) of the light of 570 nm wavelength. What is the unknown wavelength?
(A) 326 nm (B) 380 nm (C) 456 nm (D) 512 nm (E) 713 nm

56. A family member is ready to have a brain scan using technetium-99*, an excited isotope with 6.0-hour half-life. The hospital makes this short-lived Tc-99* from the decay of molybdenum-99 then delivers it to the nuclear medicine department. After production of Tc-99*, the hospital staff takes 90 minutes to transport it to the operating room. What is an appropriate amount of Tc-99* to be produced by the technician-in-charge for the medical requirement of 10 mg of Tc-99*?
(A) 10 mg (B) 12 mg (C) 16 mg (D) 20 mg (E) 24 mg

57. Light of wavelength 400 nm falls on a metal surface having a work function 1.70 eV. What is the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted from the metal?
(A) 1.41 eV (B) 1.70 eV (C) 2.82 eV (D) 3.11 eV (E) 4.51 eV

58. You wish to pick an element for a photocell that will operate via the photoelectric effect with
visible light. Which of the following is suitable? (hc/e=1.2398× eV⋅m, the wavelength of
visible light: 380 ~ 750 nm)
(A) Silver (4.26 eV) (B) Copper (4.5 eV) (C) Aluminum (4.06 eV)
(D) Magnesium (3.66 eV) (E) Sodium (2.36 eV)

59. X-rays are produced by bombarding a tungsten target with high-energy electrons. The K-shell electron is ejected, and then an L-shell electron jumps to the K-shell and releases an X-ray photon.The binding energies of shell and orbital are listed in the table. Estimate the energy of this X-ray photon.

(A) 10 keV (B) 12 keV (C) 58 keV (D) 69 keV (E) 81 keV

60. A beam of light with intensity 40 W/m2 is polarized along the y-axis as
shown. This beam passes through a polarizing filter with a polarization
direction that makes an angle θ=60° with the y-axis. What is the intensity of
the light transmitted through the filter?

(A) 5 W/m2 (B) 10 W/m2 (C) 20 W/m2 (D) 30 W/m2 (E) 35 W/m2

61. The observed osmotic pressure for a 0.10 M solution of M(SO₄)₂ at 27°C is 6.4 atm. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the expected and experimental values for i?
(A) (B)
(C)(D)
(E)

62. How many of the following given molecules have all their atoms lying in the same plane?
H₂C=CH₂, H₂C=C=CH₂, CH₃COCH₃, NH₃, CO₂, BeCl₂
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6

63. The average osmotic pressure of human body fluids is approximately 7.7 atm. Suppose we want to prepare a solution of normal saline that is isotonic with human body fluids, using only NaCl as the solute. Assuming the density of the saline solution is 1 g/cm³ and the temperature is 37°C (normal body temperature), what would be the weight percent concentration of NaCl in this solution? (Assuming NaCl is 100% dissociation; Na=23.0 g/mol; Cl=35.5 g/mol)
(A) 0.45 % (w/w) (B) 0.90 % (w/w) (C) 1.35 % (w/w)
(D) 1.80 % (w/w) (E) 2.30 % (w/w)

64. To cool 500 g of liquid water from 25°C to 0°C, what is the minimum number of ice cubes need to use? Each ice cube contains 20.0 g of water and temperature is -5°C. The enthalpy of fusion of ice is 6.020 kJ/mol; the heat capacity of liquid water is 75.4 J/mol·°C; the heat capacity of solid water is 2.05 J/g·°C.
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9 (E) 10

65. In a coffee-cup calorimeter, 1.60 g NH₄NO₃ is mixed with 75.0 g water at an initial temperature 25.0^oC. After dissolution of the salt, the final temperature of the calorimeter contents was 23.3^oC.For the dissolving process, how many of the following thermodynamic functions: ∆H, ∆S_sys, ∆S_surr,and ∆S_univ, are positive in signs?(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) 4

66. Methanol, a high-octane fuel, is extensively utilized in high-performance racing engines due to its favorable combustion characteristics. To investigate its thermodynamic properties, we can
calculate the change in Gibbs free energy (ΔG°) associated with the combustion reaction of
methanol when employed as an energy source. What is the G°?
(CO₂) = -394 kJ, (H₂O) = -299 kJ, (CH₃OH)= -163 kJ
(A) -1358 kJ/mol (B) -1558 kJ/mol (C) -1658 kJ/mol
(D) -1758 kJ/mol (E) -1858 kJ/mol

67. fn a high-spin octahedral complex, the metal ion has two more unpaired electrons than in a lowspin octahedral complex. What is the potential metal ion?
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

68. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) An orbital can accommodate at most two electrons with the same spin quantum number.
(B) The electron density at a point is disproportional to Ψ² at that point.
(C) The quantum number of an electron must be either + .
(D) A 2p orbital is more penetrating than a 2s; i.e., it has a higher electron density near the
nucleus and inside the charge cloud of a 1s orbital.
(E) All of these are incorrect.

69. The solubility of the ionic compound M2X3, having a molar mass of 288 g/mol, is 3.60× g/Lat 25oC. What is the Ksp of the compound at 25℃?
(A)(B) (C) (D) (E)

70. What is the pH of a 0.01 M MA solution where MA is a salt that fully dissociates into M⁺ and Ain water? The acid dissociation constant (Ka) for its conjugate acid HA is 1.0×
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8 (E) 9

71. What is the equilibrium concentration of HA²- in a 1 M H₃A solution with the following
dissociation constants?

(A)(B) (C)(D)(E)

72. A certain drug is metabolized in the human body following second-order kinetics, with the rate law given by: Rate= k [D]²
where [D] is the concentration of the drug in mg/L, and k is the rate constant in L·. At
time t=0, the drug concentration in the bloodstream is 20.0 mg/L. After 30.0 min, the
concentration drops to 10.0 mg/L.
How long will it take for the concentration to drop to 5.0 mg/L?
(A) 60.0 min (B) 45.0 min (C) 37.5 min (D) 90.0 min (E) 120.0 min

73. The balanced equation for the reaction of the gases nitrogen dioxide and fluorine is

If the first step is the rate-determining step, which of the following expressions correctly
represents the rate law?
(A) Rate= k [NO₂]²[F₂] (B) Rate= k [NO₂][F₂] (C) Rate= k₂ [NO₂][F]
(D) Rate= k₁ [NO₂][F₂] (E) None of the above.

74. Consider the ammonia synthesis reaction:
where △G° = -31.3 kJ/mol of N₂ consumed at 25°C
Which of the following statements correctly predicts the direction of the reaction when
=1.00 atm?
(A) the system moves to the right
(B) the system moves to the left
(C) the system is already at equilibrium
(D) the system moves to the left if the temperature increases
(E) not enough information

75. What is the solubility of solid CaF₂ in a 0.10 M NaF solution?
(A)(B)(C)(D)(E)

76. fn a real gas system, the van der Waals equation is used to consider gas behaviors. van der Waals equation is written as: [P + a(n²/V²)](V - nb)=nRT
Which of the kinetic molecular theory postulates is incorrect in a real gas system so that the
correction factor of pressure is required? P=observed pressure, T=temperature, V=volume of the container, n=mole of the gas, a and b=van der Waals constants, and R=Avogadro constant. a(n²/V²)=correction factor of pressure compared to the ideal gas law.
(A) The particles in a gas are in constant, random motion.
(B) The combined volume of the particles is negligible.
(C) The particles exert no forces on one another.
(D) Any collisions between the particles are completely elastic.
(E) The average kinetic energy of the particles is proportional to the temperature in Kelvins.

77. Three electrochemical cells were connected in series so that the same quantity of electrical current passes through all three cells. fn the first cell, 1.15 g of chromium metal was deposited from a chromium(III) nitrate (Cr(NO₃)₃) solution. fn the second cell, 6.31 g of osmium was deposited from a solution made of Osn+ and nitrate ions.
Choose the correct name of the salt. Cr=52.0 g/mol; Os=192.2 g/mol
(A) osmium(II) nitrate (B) osmium(III) nitrate (C) osmium(IV) nitrate
(D) osmium(V) nitrate (E) osmium(VI) nitrate

78. A pain relief medication indicates that every 6 g of powder contains approximately 480 mg of ibuprofen. Assuming all of the active ingredients are ibuprofen, the powder is fully dissolved in 0.5 L of isopropanol. What is the approximate concentration of ibuprofen in the resulting solution in ppm? (The density of isopropanol is 0.79 g/cm³.)
(A) 0.12 ppm (B) 480 ppm (C) 960 ppm (D) 1215 ppm (E) 1304 ppm

79. Consider the molecular orbital energy level diagrams for O₂ and NO. Which of the following statement is correct?
I. Both molecules are paramagnetic.
II. The bond strength of O₂ is greater than the bond strength of NO.
III. NO is an example of a heteronuclear diatomic molecule.
IV. The ionization energy of NO is smaller than the ionization energy of NO⁺.
(A) I only
(B) I and II
(C) I and III
(D) II and III
(E) I, III, and IV

80. Peramivir has shown to be effective against the influenza B virus.
What is the degree of unsaturation in Peramivir?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6

81. Which of the following cycloalkenes would be expected to be stable?

(A) f and ff (B) ff and fff (C) ff (D) f and fff (E) All are stable.

82. What is the structural relationship of the following two compounds?

(A) same compound (B) enantiomers (C) cis-trans isomers
(D) structural isomers (E) diastereomers

83. Two complex ions containing Ni are , which is blue, and , which is purple.
Which one of these statements is correct? (en = H₂N–CH₂–CH₂–NH₂)
(A) The wavelength of the light absorbed by is greater than the wavelength absorbed
by .
(B) The energy of the photon absorbed by [Ni(en)3]2+ is greater than that absorbed by
.
(C) Both complex ions are diamagnetic.
(D) absorbs light in the violet region of the spectrum.
(E) The crystal field splitting energy () is greater for than for .

84. Which of the following becomes more soluble in water upon addition of NaOH?
(A) an amine (B) a carboxylic acid (C) a phenol
(D) an alkane (E) two of these

85. Given the compound as shown below:

Which of the labeled H atoms (1-5) in the following molecule would be predicted to be the most acidic?(A) 1 (B) 2(C) 3(D) 4(E) 5

86. Which of the following compounds exhibits the highest stability?
(A) 2-methyl-1,2-pentadiene (B) (Z)-2-methyl-1,3-pentadiene
(C) （E）-2-methyl-1,3-pentadiene (D) 2-methyl-2,3-pentadiene
(E) 2-methyl-1,4-pentadiene

87. A metal fluoride crystallizes in a close-packed arrangement of fluoride ions, with the metal ions occupying one-half of the octahedral holes. What is the formula of this compound?
(A) MF (B) MF₂ (C) MF₃ (D) M₂F (E) M₂F₃

88. As indicated by Lewis structures, which of the following species could not comply with the octet rule?

 I. NO; II. NO₂; III. N₂O₄; IV. CO; V. CH₃NC
(A) f and II (B) II, III, and V (C) I, III, and V
(D) I, II, III, and V (E) I, II, and V

89. fdentify the major product of the reaction below.

(A)(B)(C)
(D)(E)

90. ff a 20.0 g sample of CaCO₃ is put into a 20.0 L container and heated to 800℃
, what the mass percentage of the CaCO₃ will react to reach equilibrium? (Ca=40.08 g/mol), = 1.16 at 800℃

(A) 100% (B) 76% (C) 50% (D) 24% (E) 13%