115年 - 115 學士後醫學系招生考試試題：物理及化學#138377

1. A normal diastolic blood pressure is 80 mmHg. What is this pressure expressed in SI units (Système International d'Unités)? (Given: the density of mercury is 13.6 g/cm³ and the gravitational acceleration g = 10 m/s²) (A) 1.088×10² Pa (B) 1.088×10³ Pa (C) 1.088×10⁴ Pa (D) 1.088×10⁵ Pa (E) 1.088×10⁶ Pa

2. A ball is kicked from the ground with an initial speed of 50.0 m/s at an angle of θ₀ = 37° above the horizontal. It lands on a roof (Point A) exactly 6.0 seconds after being kicked. Determine the speed of the ball just before it hits the roof. (Given: sin θ₀~0.6, cos θ₀~0.8, gravitational acceleration g = 10.0 m/s²) (A) 0.00 m/s (B) 36.1 m/s (C) 50.0 m/s (D) 72.2 m/s (E) 100 m/s

3. A particle moves along a vertical circular track of radius R. The circular track is smooth and has zero friction. The only forces acting on the particle are gravity and the normal force from the track. During its motion, the particle's maximum speed is 6/5 times its minimum speed. What is the minimum speed of the particle? (Gravitational acceleration g) (A)(B) (C)(D) (E)

4. Mary throws a ball with 0.80 kg mass against a brick wall. The ball is moving horizontally to the left at 30 m/s when it hits the wall; it rebounds horizontally to the right at 20 m/s. The ball is in contact with the wall for 0.010 s. Find the impulse of the net external force on the ball during its collision with the wall. (A) 40 N·m (B) 40 N·s (C) 8 N·m (D) 8 N·s (E) 800 J

5. Find the equivalent capacitance between a and b.
(A) 0.83 μF (B) 1.2 μF (C) 2.4 μF (D) 6.0 μF (E) 12.0 μF

6. Incompressible oil with density ρ is pumped through a cylindrical pipe at a constant mass flow rate. The first section of the pipe has a diameter d₁ and flow speed v₁. The diameter of the second section of the pipe is twice that of the first section. What is the flow speed in the second section? (A) v₁ (B) v₁ (C) v₁ (D) 2v₁ (E) 4v₁

7. Because the ear is sensitive over a broad range of intensities, a logarithmic measure of intensity called sound intensity level is often used. The chosen reference intensity I₀ is approximately the threshold of human hearing at 1000 Hz. If the intensity of a sound wave equals 10 I₀, what is the sound intensity level in dB? (A) -3 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 10 (E) 20

8. If a simple pendulum oscillates with small amplitude and its length is doubled, what happens to the frequency of its motion? (A) It doubles. (B) It becomes times as large. (C) It becomes half as large. (D) It becomes 1/times as large. (E) It remains the same.

9. Two long straight wires are mounted parallel to each other, with one wire directly above the other. Each wire has a weight per unit length of w = 2.0 × 10⁻⁵ N/m. The separation between the wires is d = 0.080 m. The wires carry currents that are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction. Find the current I in each wire. (Given: permeability constant μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ T·m/A) (A) 1.8 A (B) 2.4 A (C) 2.8 A (D) 3.2 A (E) 3.6 A

10. An electric dipole with a dipole moment magnitude of p = 5.0 × 10⁻⁶ C·m is placed in a uniform electric field of magnitude E = 2.0 × 10⁵ N/C. The initial angle between the dipole moment and the electric fieldis 60°. How much work must an external agent do to turn the dipole 180° from its initial position? (A) 0.5 J (B) 1.0 J (C) 1.5 J (D) 2.0 J (E) 0 J

11. Large aperture telescopes are used primarily to ______. (A) collect more light (B) reduce chromatic aberration (C) increase magnification (D) reduce diffraction limit (E) decrease focal length

12. An electromagnetic wave with a peak magnetic field magnitude of 1.5 × 10⁻⁷ T has an associated peak electric field of what magnitude? (A) 0.5 × 10⁻¹⁵ N/C (B) 2 × 10⁻⁵ N/C (C) 2.2 × 10⁴ N/C (D) 22 N/C (E) 45 N/C

13. If Josh's face is 30.0 cm in front of a concave shaving mirror creating an upright image 1.50 times as large as the object, what is the mirror's focal length? (A) 12.0 cm (B) 20.0 cm (C) 70.0 cm (D) 90.0 cm (E) none of the above

14. What is the energy of each photon produced by positron–electron annihilation? (c is the speed of the light; m₀ is the mass of electron at rest.) (A) 12 m₀c² (B) 6 m₀c² (C) 2 m₀c² (D) m₀c² (E) m₀c²

15. When beryllium Be is bombarded by α particles, radiation X will be emitted from the target material. The nuclear reaction can be expressed as α + ⁹₄Be → ¹²₆C + X. What is radiation X? (A) (B) (C) (D)(E) γ-ray

16. All of the following compounds are soluble in water except ______. (A) NaCl (B) CaCl₂ (C) FeCl₃ (D) NH₄Cl (E) PbCl₂

17. How many stereogenic centers are there in Lovastatin (Mevacor®, a cholesterol-lowering drug)?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 (E) 8

18. Identify which of the following ions has the largest size. (A) O²⁻ (B) F⁻ (C) Na⁺ (D) Mg²⁺ (E) Al³⁺

19. Triethylamine [(CH₃CH₂)₃N] is a molecule in which the nitrogen atom is ______ hybridized and the CNC bond angle is ______. (A) sp², ＞109.5° (B) sp², ＜109.5° (C) sp³, ＞109.5° (D) sp³, ＜109.5° (E) sp, 109.5°

20. Rank the following elements in order of decreasing electronegativity. I. C II. H III. Cl IV. Br V. Si (A) I ＞ II ＞ III ＞ IV ＞ V (B) III ＞ IV ＞ I ＞ II ＞ V (C) III ＞ IV ＞ I ＞ V ＞ II (D) III ＞ IV ＞ II ＞ I ＞ V (E) V ＞ I ＞ II ＞ III ＞ IV

21. Which of the following ions is paramagnetic? (A) Cu⁺ (B) Zn²⁺ (C) O₂²⁻ (D) Cr³⁺ (E) Na⁺

22. What is the number of nearest neighbors in a body-centered cubic lattice? (A) 12 (B) 10 (C) 8 (D) 6 (E) 4

23. What is the coefficient of H₂O when the following reaction is balanced?
MnO₄⁻(aq) + Fe(s) + H⁺(aq) → Fe²⁺(aq) + Mn²⁺(aq) + H₂O(l) unbalanced (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8 (E) 10

24. Based on the following half-reactions under standard conditions, which metal, Cu or Ni, could reduce Zn²⁺ to Zn(s) upon Cu or Ni mixed with a Zn²⁺(aq) solution at ambient temperature?
Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Zn, ε° = -0.76 V
Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu, ε° = 0.34 V
Ni²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Ni, ε° = -0.23 V (A) Both Ni and Cu would work. (B) Neither Ni nor Cu would work. (C) Ni (D) Cu (E) This cannot be determined.

25. Determine the ΔS° that is expected to be positive for the following reactions. (A) H₂O(l) →H₂O(s) (B) 2O₂(g) + 2SO(g) → 2SO₃(g) (C) CaCO₃(s) → CaO(s) + CO₂(g) (D) I₂(g) → I₂(s) (E) none of the above

26. Which of the following species is weak electrolyte after dissolved in H₂O at ambient temperature? (A) C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁(s)(sucrose) (B) NH₃(g) (C) KI(s) (D) H₂SO₄(l) (E) NaCl(g)

27. The hydrogen element occurs as three isotopes: ¹H, ²H and ³H. Which of the following statements is (are) correct?
I. Both ¹H and ²H have stable nuclei; ³H undergoes β decay.
II. ²H solvents are used for NMR spectroscopy.
III. ³H has 1 proton, 2 neutrons, and 1 electron. (A) I and II (B) II and III (C) III (D) I and III (E) I, II, and III

28. For the reaction 2N₂O(g) ⇌ O₂(g) + 2 N₂(g), what happens to the equilibrium position if the volume increases? (A) shifts to the left (B) shifts to the right (C) does nothing (D) doubles (E) halves

29. Which of following orbitals represents 3d_xy? (Orbital diagram images) (A) (B)(C)(D) (E) none of the above

30. In which structure(s) below does nitrogen have a formal charge of +1?(A) I (B) II and IV (C) III and V (D) I and V (E) V

31. A particle moves along the x-axis with an acceleration given by a(t) = -kv², where v is the instantaneous velocity and k is a positive constant. If the particle has an initial velocity v₀ at x = 0, what is the velocity as a function of position x? (A) v(x) = v₀ - kx (B) v(x) = v₀e⁻ᵏˣ (C) v(x) = (D) v(x) = v₀/(1 + kx) (E) v(x) = v₀ - kx²

32. A uniform circular disk of mass M and radius r is connected by a light cord to a fixed pivot on a smooth horizontal table. The center of the disk moves at a constant distance R from the pivot and undergoes uniform circular motion with tangential speed v. The magnitude of the disk's angular momentum about the pivot is (A) MRv (B) (C) (D) (E) M(R² + r²/2)(v/R)

33. A 20 g bullet moving vertically upward at 1000 m/s strikes and passes through the center of mass of a 4.0 kg block initially at rest. The bullet emerges from the block moving directly upward at 400 m/s. Neglecting air resistance, to what maximum height does the block then rise above its initial position? (Gravitational acceleration g = 10 m/s²) (A) 0.3 cm (B) 2.1 cm (C) 15 cm (D) 30 cm (E) 45 cm

34. A water storage tank with cross-sectional area A₁ is filled to a height of h. The space above the water contains air at pressure 3p₀. The water flows out the bottom of the tank through a short pipe with cross-sectional area A₂. The area A₁ is much larger than A₂. The pressure at the exit pipe is p₀. The water with density ρ is considered an ideal fluid. Find the flow speed in the pipe. (Gravitational acceleration g) (A) (B)  (C) (D) (E)

35. In hydrotherapy training at KMU, a therapist measures a patient's body density using underwater weighing. A patient has a mass of 75.0 kg in air. When fully submerged in water, the apparent mass is 3.0 kg. Assume water density ρ = 1.0 g/cm³ and neglect lung air volume changes. What is the patient's body density? (A) 0.960 kg/m³ (B) 1.042 kg/m³ (C) 960 kg/m³ (D) 1042 kg/m³ (E) 1120 kg/m³

36. A hospital keeps oxygen cylinders in an emergency room. An oxygen cylinder contains gas at a gauge pressure of 220 kPa at a temperature of 27 °C. During transportation in summer, the cylinder temperature rises to 47 °C. What is the new gauge pressure inside the cylinder? Assume the cylinder volume is constant, oxygen behaves as an ideal gas, and atmospheric pressure is 100 kPa. (A) 234 kPa (B) 241 kPa (C) 331 kPa (D) 334 kPa (E) 341 kPa

37. During a liver ultrasound scan, the transducer operates at frequency f = 5.0 MHz. The sound speed in liver tissue is v = 1540 m/s. The emitted ultrasound pulse contains 3 cycles per pulse (i.e., the spatial pulse length (SPL) corresponds to 3 wavelengths). Assume the minimum separable distance along the beam direction (axial resolution) is Δz_min = SPL/2. What is the minimum tumor thickness (along the beam direction) that can be resolved as a distinct structure? (A) 0.15 mm (B) 0.23 mm (C) 0.46 mm (D) 0.92 mm (E) 1.54 mm

38. The deformation and the restoring force of an elastic string obey Hooke's law. When the string is stretched to twice its original length, the speed of transverse waves on the string is v. What is the wave speed on the string when it is stretched to four times its original length? Assume the mass of the string remains constant and is uniformly distributed. (A) v (B) (C) (D) 2v (E)

39. A supersonic jet fighter flies horizontally at a constant altitude of 3400 m with a speed of Mach 1.25. Assuming the speed of sound is 340 m/s, how much time will elapse after the jet passes directly over an observer before the shock wave (sonic boom) reaches them? (A) 4.00 s (B) 6.00 s (C) 7.50 s (D) 8.00 s (E) 10.0 s

40. An ideal monatomic gas expands from volume V₀ to 2V₀ along a straight line path in the P-V (pressure-volume) diagram from (P₀, V₀) to (P₀/2, 2V₀). What is the heat Q absorbed by the gas in this process? (A) 0.75P₀V₀ (B) P₀V₀ (C) 1.25P₀V₀ (D) 1.5P₀V₀ (E) 2P₀V₀

41. A cylindrical rod of length L and radius R is insulated on its surface. Its thermal conductivity k varies with temperature as k(T) = αT. If the two ends of the rod are maintained at T₁ and T₂, the heat current dQ/dt is proportional to ______. (A) ln(T₁/T₂) (B) (C) T₁ - T₂ (D) T₁² - T₂² (E) T₁³ - T₂³

42. The figure represents a closed cycle for an ideal gas (the figure is not drawn to scale). The change in the internal energy of the gas as it moves from a to c along the path abc is -500 J. As the gas moves from state c to state d, 400 J of heat is transferred to the system. An additional 200 J of heat is absorbed by the gas as it moves from d back to a. What is the work done on the gas as it moves from c to d? (A) -100 J (B) 100 J (C) -300 J (D) 300 J (E) -700 J

43. A heat engine operates between a high-temperature reservoir at 500 K and a low-temperature reservoir at 300 K. In each cycle, the engine absorbs 1000 J of heat from the high-temperature reservoir and performs 500 J of work. Which of the following statements regarding this engine is correct? (A) It violates the first law of thermodynamics but not the second. (B) It violates the second law of thermodynamics but not the first. (C) It violates both the first and second laws of thermodynamics. (D) It violates neither law and is theoretically possible. (E) There is insufficient information to determine if any laws are violated.

44. A gas is at 200 K. If we wish to double the root-mean-square speed of the molecules of the gas, to what value must we raise its temperature? (A) 283 K (B) 400 K (C) 566 K (D) 800 K (E) 1130 K

45. A long coaxial cable consists of a solid inner conductor of radius a carrying current I and a thin outer shell of radius b carrying return current I. The magnetic field at distance r (a ＜ r ＜ b) is ______. (Given: permeability constant μ₀)
(A) 0 (B) μ₀I/(2πa) (C) μ₀I/(2πr) (D) μ₀Ir/(2πab) (E) μ₀I/(2πb)

46. A small AC generator is used to power motion sensors on a treadmill. The generator coil rotates in a uniform magnetic field and must produce an emf of 373 V. How many turns of wire are required? (Given: Magnetic field B = 0.60 T, Coil area A = 0.15 m², Rotation frequency f = 60.0 Hz) (A) 8 (B) 11 (C) 14 (D) 17 (E) 20

47. When operating on a 120-V circuit, an electric heater receives 1.30 × 10³ W of power, a toaster receives 1.00 × 10³ W, and an electric oven receives 1.54 × 10³ W. If all three appliances are connected in parallel on a 120-V circuit and turned on, what is the total current drawn from an external source? (A) 24.0 A (B) 32.0 A (C) 40.0 A (D) 48.0 A (E) none of the above

48. As shown in the figure, three charged particles (1, 2, and 3) are positioned along an x-axis. Particles 1 and 2 are fixed in place. Particle 3 is free to move, but the net electrostatic force exerted on it by Particles 1 and 2 happens to be zero. Given that the distance between Particles 1 and 2 is L₁₂, the distance between Particles 2 and 3 is L₂₃, and they satisfy the relationship L₁₂ = 2 L₂₃. What is the ratio of the charges q₁/q₂?
(A) 4 (B) -4 (C) 9 (D) -9 (E) -8

49. A parallel-plate capacitor has an initial capacitance of C₀ = 6 μF. The capacitor is first connected to a 100 V battery until fully charged and then disconnected from the power source. A dielectric slab with a dielectric constant κ = 3 is then inserted symmetrically between the plates. The thickness of the slab is exactly half of the plate separation distance. What is the external work involved in the process of inserting the dielectric slab? (A) 10 mJ (B) -10 mJ (C) 15 mJ (D) -15 mJ (E) 0

50. In two LRC series AC circuits, suppose circuit 1 has R₁ = 60 Ω, C₁ = 300 μF, L₁ = 0.80 H and circuit 2 has R₂ = 120 Ω, C₂ = 600 μF, L₂ = 1.60 H. Find the ratio of , where f₁ and f₂ are the resonance frequencies of circuits 1 and 2, respectively. (A) (B) (C) 1 (D)(E) 2

51. A long solenoid has 5000 turns per meter and a cross-sectional area of 2.0×10⁻⁴ m². A larger secondary coil with 500 turns, which has a cross-sectional area of 5.0×10⁻⁴ m², and a total resistance of 2π Ω is placed outside and coaxial with the central part of the solenoid. The current in the solenoid drops uniformly from 4.0 A to 0 A in a time interval of Δt = 0.1 s. What is the magnitude of the induced current in the external coil during this time interval? (Given: permeability constant μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ T·m/A) (A) 4.0 mA (B) 5.0 mA (C) 6.0 mA (D) 7.0 mA (E) 8.0 mA

52. A wire is bent into a three-quarter circular loop of radius R and carries a steady current I. It is placed in a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the three-quarter circular loop. The magnitude of net magnetic force on the wire is ______. (A) 0 (B) πRIB (C) 2RIB (D) (3/4)πRIB (E) √2 RIB

53. A circular coil 0.05 m in radius, with 50 turns of wire, lies on a horizontal plane. It carries a counterclockwise current of 8.0 A. The coil is in a uniform 1.50 T magnetic field directed toward the +Y direction. Find the torque on the coil. (Given: Unit vectors î, ĵ and k̂ point in the directions of the positive X-, Y- and Z- axes and have magnitude of 1) (A) -0.03 π î (B) -1.50 π î (C) 0.03 π k̂ (D) 1.5 π k̂ (E) 0.03 π ĵ

54. A beam of monochromatic light with a wavelength of λ = 600 nm is incident perpendicularly onto a diffraction grating with 500 lines/mm. What is the maximum diffraction order (m) that can be observed on the screen? (Note: Consider only the orders on one side of the central maximum, excluding m = 0) (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

55. Alice directs a beam of 0.12 nm x rays at certain planes of a silicon crystal. As she increases the angle of incidence of the beam from zero, the first strong interference maximum occurs when the beam makes an angle of θ = tan⁻¹() with the planes. How far apart are the planes? (A) 0.045 nm (B) 0.075 nm (C) 0.1 nm (D) 0.15 nm (E) 0.2 nm

56. A rectangular conducting loop with resistance R lies in the same plane as a long straight wire carrying a steady current i. The nearest edge of the loop is initially at a distance a from the wire, and the loop has the width w and length L as shown in the figure. The loop is then pulled directly away from the wire with constant speed v. As the motion just begins, the induced current in the loop is ______. (Given: permeability constant μ₀) (A)(B) (C) (D) (E)

57. A thin layer of oil with an index of refraction n = 1.5 coats a glass plate with an index of refraction of 1.8. White light from air (n = 1.0) is incident normal to the film. In the reflected light: (1) Fully constructive interference occurs at a wavelength of λ₁ = 600 nm. (2) Fully destructive interference occurs at a wavelength of λ₂ = 400 nm. Assume that both wavelengths correspond to the same interference order, what is the thickness of the oil film? (A) 100 nm (B) 133 nm (C) 167 nm (D) 200 nm (E) 266 nm

58. What is the de Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 50.0 V? (A) 0.100 nm (B) 0.139 nm (C) 0.174 nm (D) 0.834 nm (E) none of the above

59. The radioactive tracer has a half-life of T₁/₂ = 2.0×10³ years. A sample initially contains N₀ = 8.0×10¹⁵ nuclei. What is the activity of the remaining nuclei after 4.0×10³ years? (Given: 1 year = 3.15×10⁷ s, 1 Ci = 3.7×10¹⁰ decays/s, ln2 = 0.693) (A) 3.0×10⁻⁷ Ci (B) 5.9×10⁻⁷ Ci (C) 1.4×10⁻⁵ Ci (D) 5.9×10⁻⁵ Ci (E) 2.2×10⁻³ Ci

60. In the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, the reference level of zero energy is taken to be that of a free electron at infinite separation from the nucleus. Let K denote the kinetic energy of the electron in a bound orbit and let E be its total mechanical energy. Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between K and E? (A) K = -E (B) K = E (C) K = E/2 (D) K = -E/2 (E) K = -2E

61. Temperature dependence of resistivity for three materials (A, B and C) is depicted below. Which of the following statements is (are) correct?
I. A represents an insulator. II. B is a metal. III. C represents a superconductor. (A) I and II (B) II and III (C) I and III (D) II (E) III

62. Which of the following terms best describes the pair of compounds shown below?
(A) same compound (B) constitution isomers (C) enantiomers (D) diastereomers (E) conformers

63. Rank the following in terms of nucleophilic strength:
I. CH₃S⁻   II. CH₃SH   III. H₂S   IV. HS⁻   V. CH₃SH₂⁺ (A) I＞II＞III＞IV＞V (B) V＞IV＞III＞II＞I (C) I＞IV＞II＞III＞V (D) V＞I＞IV＞II＞III (E) I＞II＞IV＞V＞III

64. Consider the S_N2 reaction of 1-chloro-5-methylhexane with CN⁻ ion.

Assuming no other changes, what effect on the rate would result from simultaneously doubling the concentrations of both 1-chloro-5-methylhexane and NaCN? (A) No effect (B) It would double the rate. (C) It would triple the rate. (D) It would increase the rate four times. (E) It would increase the rate six times.

65. A solution contains the ions Ag⁺, Pb²⁺, and Ni²⁺. Dilute solutions of NaCl, Na₂SO₄, and Na₂S are available to separate the positive ions from each other. In order to effect separation, the solutions should be added in which order? (A) Na₂SO₄, NaCl, Na₂S (B) Na₂SO₄, Na₂S, NaCl (C) Na₂S, NaCl, Na₂SO₄ (D) NaCl, Na₂S, Na₂SO₄ (E) NaCl, Na₂SO₄, Na₂S

66. Which of the following functional groups is absent in the HIV protease inhibitor Saquinavir? (A) alcohol (B) amide (C) aromatic (D) amine (E) ketone

67. In the unit cell of face-center cubic, the ratio of tetrahedral holes to atoms (or ions) is ______. (A) 1:1 (B) 1:2 (C) 2:1 (D) 1:4 (E) 4:1

68. Which will be the major product when N,N-dimethylpropanamide is treated with LiAlH₄? (A) CH₃CH₂CONH₂ (B) CH₃CH₂CH₂NH₂ (C) CH₃CH₂CH₂OH (D) CH₃CH₂CH₂N(CH₃)₂ (E) CH₃CH₂N(CH₃)₂

69. According to the concept of hard and soft acids and bases (HSABs), arrange the solubilities of silver halides in water (25 °C). (A) AgF_(s) ＞ AgCl_(s) ＞ AgBr_(s) ＞ AgI_(s) (B) AgI_(s) ＞ AgBr_(s) ＞ AgCl_(s) ＞ AgF_(s) (C) AgF_(s) ＞ AgI_(s) ＞ AgBr_(s) ＞ AgCl_(s) (D) AgI_(s) ＞ AgCl_(s) ＞ AgBr_(s) ＞ AgF_(s) (E) none of the above

70. Three types of chemical reactions are described below. Which of the following statements is correct?
I. CH₃COOH(l) + CH₃CH₂OH(l) CH₃COOCH₂CH₃(l) + H₂O
II. AgNO₃(aq) + KCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + K⁺(aq) + NO₃⁻(aq)
III. Cu(s) + 2Fe³⁺(aq) → Cu²⁺(aq) + 2Fe²⁺(aq) (A) At 25 °C (1 atm), the reaction rate for type I is the fastest. (B) This equation of type II is called the net ionic equation. (C) Type III is a precipitation reaction. (D) The reduced half-reaction of type III is Cu(s) → Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻. (E) Type I involves bond cleavage and formation reaction.

71. Under what condition would phenylalanine exist as the following structure?
(A) at a low pH (B) at a high pH (C) at the pI (D) when pH = pKa (E) none of the above

72. Rank the bold hydrogens for the following compounds from most acidic to least acidic. I. (toluene with CF₃ and COOH, H on COOH) II. (alkene H) III. (oxonium H) IV. (benzene H) V. (phenol OH) (A) I ＞ II ＞ III ＞ IV ＞ V (B) III ＞ V ＞ II ＞ I ＞ IV (C) V ＞ II ＞ IV ＞ III ＞ I (D) III ＞ I ＞ V ＞ II ＞ IV (E) V ＞ III ＞ I ＞ II ＞ IV

73. Which will be the major product when trans-1-bromo-2-methylcyclohexane reacts with sodium isopropoxide in isopropanol? (A) I (cyclohexene) (B) II (methylcyclohexene) (C) III and IV (D) III (E) IV

74. Which conformation of trans-1-isopropyl-3-methylcyclohexane would be present in greatest amount at equilibrium? (A) The conformation with the methyl group equatorial and the isopropyl group axial. (B) The conformation with the methyl group axial and the isopropyl group equatorial. (C) The conformation with both groups axial. (D) The conformation with both groups equatorial. (E) The twist boat conformation.

75. Which of the following reagents can be used to convert cyclopentanol to cyclopentane? (A) TsCl, pyridine followed by LiAlH₄ (B) Na₂Cr₂O₇, H₂SO₄ (C) NaBH₄ followed by H₃O⁺ (D) H₂SO₄, heat followed by H₂, Pt-catalyst (E) both A and D

76. When two carbenes collide, they immediately dimerize to give? (A) an alkane (B) an alkene (C) an alkyne (D) an aromatic ring (E) a carbanion

77. Each of the diagram shown below represents the atomic orbitals that described the π electron system in butadiene: shade areas are positive; unshaded areas are negative. Which of these diagrams would be expected to represent the highest energy molecular orbital? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) none of the above

78. Calculate the total number of unpaired electrons in the following complex ions: Zn(H₂O)₆²⁺, Ni(CN)₄²⁻ (square planar), Co(NH₃)₆³⁺ (strong field). (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) 4

79. Which will be the major product when diethyl heptanedioate reacts with sodium ethoxide?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV (E) V

80. What is the symmetry of BF₃? (A) C₃ (B) C₃ᵥ (C) C₆ (D) D₃ₕ (E) D₆

81. How many moles of carbon dioxide are generated when one mole of the compound shown below (bicyclic alkene structure) is treated with warm, concentrated KMnO₄?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 8

82. Which of the following species is/are a resonance form(s) of the species in the box?
(A) I and II (B) I and III (C) II and III (D) I and IV (E) II and IV

83. How many enantiomer(s) can be drawn from CH₃CHClCHBrCH₃? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 6

84. Consider the following equilibrium reaction: N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g) + 92.94 kJ.
Which of the following changes will shift the balance to the right?
I. increase temperature II. decrease temperature III. increase volume
IV. decrease volume V. remove some NH₃ VI. add some NH₃
VII. remove some N₂ VIII. add some N₂ (A) I, IV, VI, VII (B) II, III, V, VIII (C) II, IV, V, VIII (D) I, VI, VIII (E) I, III, V

85. Which will be the major product of the following reaction? (A) (B)(C) (D)(E)

86. Which will be the major product of the following reaction?(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

87. How many unpaired electrons are found in complex [Mn(H₂O)₆]²⁺ with a high-spin electron configuration? (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 5 (E) none of the above

88. Which of the following species obeys the 18-electron rule? (A) (η⁵-C₅H₅)₂Fe (B) (η⁵-C₅H₅)₂Co (C) (η⁵-C₅H₅)₂Ni (D) [(η⁵-C₅H₅)₂Ni]⁺ (E) [(η⁵-C₅H₅)₂Fe]⁺

89. Calculate ΔH° for the reaction C₄H₄(g) + 2H₂(g) → C₄H₈(g), using the following data:
ΔH°_combustion for C₄H₄(g) = -2341 kJ/mol
ΔH°_combustion for H₂(g) = -286 kJ/mol
ΔH°_combustion for C₄H₈(g) = -2755 kJ/mol (A) -128 kJ (B) -158 kJ (C) 128 kJ (D) 158 kJ (E) 300 kJ

90. When an iron knife is dipped in an aqueous solution of copper sulphate, a layer of reddish-brown precipitate is formed. Which compound or element is the layer of reddish-brown precipitate? (A) iron sulphate (B) copper (C) rust (D) copper sulphate (E) iron