12. Which of the following processes would be most directly affected if a thylakoid membrane is punctured so that the interior of the thylakoid is no longer separated from the stroma?
(A) Splitting of water
(B) Flow of electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I
(C) Synthesis of ATP
(D) Reduction of NADP+

13. A cell is treated with a drug that prevents kinetochore microtubules from attaching to chromosomes. Which stage of mitosis would most likely be disrupted? (A) DNA replication during S phase (B) Alignment of chromosomes at the metaphase plate (C) Cytokinesis (D) Chromosome condensation during prophase

14. A population of actively dividing cells is analyzed by flow cytometry. One group of cells contains twice as much DNA as another group. The cells with the higher DNA content are most likely in: (A) G1 only (B) G2 (C) G0 only (D) Cytokinesis only

15. A physician finds that a nine-year-old male patient is entering puberty much earlier than usual. Such a condition is most likely the result of a tumor in the_____ .(A) hypothalamus, producing elevated levels of testosterone (B) anterior pituitary, producing elevated levels of testosterone (C) testes, producing elevated levels of estrogen (D) anterior pituitary, producing elevated levels of gonadotropins

16. Nucleotides can be radiolabeled before they are incorporated into newly forming DNA and, therefore, can be assayed to track their incorporation. In a set of experiments, a student-faculty research team used labeled T nucleotides to study the incorporation of labeled nucleotides into a culture of lymphocytes. They found that the lymphocytes incorporated the labeled nucleotide at a significantly higher level after a pathogen was introduced into the culture. What might they conclude from this observation? (A) The pathogen consumed radiolabeled nucleotides. (B) Infection causes lymphocytes to divide more rapidly. (C) Infection causes lymphocytes to increase in size. (D) Infection causes lymphocyte cultures to skip some parts of the cell cycle.

17. Which of the following statements describes one characteristic of each chromosome in a cell during the entire process of meiosis I? (A) Each chromosome is paired with a homologous chromosome. (B) Each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids joined by a centromere. (C) Each chromosome consists of a single strand of DNA. (D) Each chromosome is joined with its homologous pair to form a synaptonemal complex.

18. In an egg cell treated with a chemical that binds calcium and magnesium ions, the_____. (A) acrosomal reaction would be blocked (B) fusion of sperm and egg nuclei would be blocked (C) fast block to polyspermy would not occur (D) fertilization envelope would not be formed

19. The bulldog ant has a diploid number of two chromosomes. Therefore, following meiosis, each daughter cell will have a single chromosome. In addition to mutations, how might genetic diversity be generated in this species? (A) crossing over only (B) independent assortment only (C) crossing over and random fertilization (D) nothing else

20. The suprachiasmatic nuclei are found in the_____. (A) hypothalamus (B) epithalamus (C) amygdala (D) Broca's area

21. Two genes are located on different chromosomes. Which event during meiosis is primarily responsible for generating different combinations of maternal and paternal alleles in the gametes? (A) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes during prophase I (B) Random orientation of homologous chromosome pairs during metaphase I (C) Separation of sister chromatids during anaphase II (D) Crossing over between nonsister chromatids

22. A mutation eliminates the activity of an enzyme in a metabolic pathway. The substrate accumulates to toxic levels, while the product becomes deficient. Which treatment strategy would most directly address both consequences of the mutation? (A) Increase the intake of the substrate (B) Restrict the intake of the substrate and supplement the product (C) Increase ATP production in affected cells (D) Stimulate expression of unrelated metabolic enzymes

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