23. Which of the following statements about the motility of Paramecium is True?
(A) Paramecium has no structure for motility
(B) Paramecium employs a pseudopod
(C) Paramecium employs a single flagellum
(D) Paramecium uses cilia

24. If a microRNA (miRNA) molecule forms a perfect complementary match with a target mRNA, what is the most likely outcome? (A) The mRNA will be translated slowly. (B) The mRNA will be exported to the cytoplasm. (C) The mRNA will be degraded. (D) The mRNA translation will be blocked.

25. Which part of the digestive tract secretes bicarbonate to neutralize chyme? (A) small intestine (B) pancreas (C) stomach (D) liver

26. Which of the following conditions is the monosomy in humans, resulting in sterile females with an X0 genotype? (A) Klinefelter syndrome (B) Down syndrome (C) Turner syndrome (D) Kawasaki disease

27. In an animal, coat color is determined by two genes. One gene dictates the pigment color, while another gene determines whether the pigment is deposited in the hair. This interaction is known as (A) Polygenic inheritance (B) Incomplete dominance (C) Pleiotropy (D) Epistasis

28. How does the mammalian cochlea distinguish different pitches of sound? (A) By varying the volume of fluid in the vestibular canal. (B) By the speed at which the three middle ear bones vibrate. (C) Because different regions of the basilar membrane are tuned to particular vibration frequencies. (D) By the number of hair cell receptors that are hyperpolarized simultaneously.

29. What mechanism allows a single eukaryotic gene to produce several different polypeptide chains? (A) Promoter methylation of different exons. (B) Use of multiple different RNA polymerases. (C) Use of different transcriptional factors. (D) Alternative RNA splicing.

30. In eukaryotic cells, distal control elements that can be located far upstream or downstream of a gene are called_____. (A) promoters (B) enhancers (C) transcription factors (D) TATA boxes

31. In the trp operon of E. coli, what is the specific role of tryptophan in the negative regulation of gene expression? (A) It acts as an inducer that inactivates the repressor. (B) It binds to the operator to block RNA polymerase directly. (C) It functions as a corepressor that activates the trp repressor. (D) It increases the level of cyclic AMP to stimulate the promoter.

32. In the hormonal control of the male reproductive system, what is the specific function of inhibin? (A) Inhibin provides negative feedback to the anterior pituitary to reduce FSH secretion. (B) Inhibin acts on the hypothalamus to increase the secretion of GnRH. (C) Inhibin triggers the thickening of the endometrium for potential implantation. (D) Inhibin stimulates the Leydig cells to produce more testosterone.

33. Which of the following is a key difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis in humans? (A) Spermatogenesis involves only mitosis, while oogenesis involves only meiosis. (B) Spermatogenesis results in four functional gametes from one precursor cell, whereas oogenesis produces only one functional egg. (C) Oogenesis is a continuous process that begins at adolescence and producing persistently. (D) Primary oocytes complete meiosis II before birth.

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