79. Tamoxifen is used as adjuvant therapy for breast cancer. Which statement about tamoxifen is correct?
(A) It blocks male hormones.
(B) It works better in estrogen receptor negative tumors.
(C) It enters cells via surface receptors.
(D) It binds estrogen receptors.
(E) It inhibits estrogen production.

80. An open reading frame is defined by _____. (A) a start and stop codon (B) homology with other species (C) placement on a genome map (D) presence of transposable elements (E) absence of highly repetitive sequences

81. TFIIH is a transcription factor that is responsible for forming the transcription bubble. For this reason, TFIIH is best described as a _____. (A) gyrase (B) ligase (C) helicase (D) endonuclease (E) single-strand binding protein

82. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct? (A) A major objective of proteomics is to identify all of the proteins present in a cell under different conditions. (B) Tandem mass spectrometry has largely replaced the Edman method for the identification of peptides and proteins. (C) In electrospray ionization mass spectrometry, molecules of a single protein produce a family of peaks, with each successive peak corresponding to a protein ion with one additional charge and a correspondingly lower m/z value. (D) Since mass is a universal property of all atoms and molecules, mass spectrometry is ideally suited to the detection of posttranslational modifications in peptides/proteins. (E) Time-of-flight mass is a method to make molecules bear electric charges.

83. To determine an enzyme’s turnover number (kcat), you need to know: (A) Both the enzyme concentration and the initial reaction rate measured when [S] is much greater than Km (B) The initial reaction rate when [S] is much greater than Km (C) The initial reaction rate at low substrate concentration (D) The substrate’s Km (E) The enzyme concentration

84. Two proteins have similar molecular masses (protein A: isoelectric point 5.8, 50 kDa; protein B: isoelectric point 8.5, 50.5 kDa). Which technique would most effectively separate them? (A) Size-exclusion chromatography (B) Ion exchange chromatography (C) SDS-PAGE (D) Ultracentrifugation (E) X-ray crystallography

85. In the process of nitrification, nitrate reductase converts _____ into _____. (A) nitrate; nitrogen (B) nitrate; ammonia (C) nitrate; nitrite (D) nitrate; nitric oxide (E) nitrogen; nitrate

86. Chaperonins such as the GroEL/ES system function _____. (A) in an ATP-dependent manner (B) only when heat shock proteins are activated (C) in a non-aqueous environment (D) only at low pH (E) only when bound to the ER membrane

87. Which of the following best describes the origin of orthologous proteins? (A) Gene duplication occurring within a single species (B) Divergence from a common ancestral gene in different species (C) Evolution from completely unrelated genetic sources (D) Modification through RNA editing (E) Changes arising from post-translational modifications (PTMs)

88. Which of the following is an anaplerotic reaction that is often used in the cell? (A) Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA (B) Conversion of α-ketoglutarate to glutamic acid (C) Conversion of citrate to oxaloacetate and acetyl-CoA (D) Conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate (E) Conversion of succinyl-CoA to heme

89. Which of the following correctly relates the order of intermediates during the synthesis of glycogen? (A) glucose → glucose-1-phosphate → glucose-6-phosphate → UDP-glucose → glycogen (B) glucose → glucose-6-phosphate → glucose-1-phosphate → UDP-glucose → glycogen (C) glucose → glucose-6-phosphate → UDP-glucose → glucose-1-phosphate → glycogen (D) glucose → UDP-glucose → glucose-1-phosphate → glucose-6-phosphate → glycogen (E) glucose → UDP-glucose → glucose-6-phosphate → glucose-1-phosphate → glycogen

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