25. Which of the following statements about parthenogenesis is correct?
(A) Parthenogenesis, a form of asexual reproduction, always results in the production of genetically identical offspring, similar to cloning.
(B) In arrhenotokous parthenogenesis, females are produced from unfertilized eggs, while males are produced from fertilized eggs.
(C) In parthenogenesis, offspring produced are always genetically diverse due to the random combination of chromosomes during egg formation.
(D) Artificially induced parthenogenesis through electric stimulation can lead to the development of embryos from unfertilized eggs in mammals.
(E) Parthenogenesis is a common reproductive strategy in most mammalian species, including primates.

21. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the complex interactions within the gut-brain axis: (A) Short-chain fatty acids produced by gut microbiota can influence brain chemistry and behavior. (B) The gut-brain axis communicates through the central nervous system and the body's hormonal responses but does not involve immune responses. (C) Dysbiosis in the gut microbiota is linked to neurological and psychiatric disorders, such as depression and anxiety. (D) Gut microbiota can influence the epigenetic regulation of genes in the central nervous system, impacting neural development and function. (E) The gut-brain axis involves bidirectional communication, where not only does the gut influence brain function, but the brain also significantly affects gut microbiota composition and function.

22. Which of the following statements about the effects of oxaliplatin on SW480 colon cancer cells, as observed in the DNA content histogram plots, is incorrect?  (A) An increase in the sub-G1 population after oxaliplatin treatment indicates a rise in apoptotic cells due to DNA fragmentation. (B) Oxaliplatin treatment leads to DNA damage in SW480 colon cancer cells. (C) The accumulation of cells in the G2/M phase after oxaliplatin treatment suggests cell cycle arrest at this phase. (D) Oxaliplatin treatment causes a majority of SW480 cells to pass through the G1 phase, indicating enhanced cell proliferation. (E) Cells with a 4N DNA content cannot be distinctly separated into G2 and M phases due to their similar DNA content.

23. Atrial enlargement involves the expansion of the heart's atrial chambers, often due to conditions like hypertension or heart valve issues. Which of the following statements about the surface electrocardiogram (ECG) findings in Lead II for atrial enlargement is incorrect?  (A) The ECG criteria for left atrial enlargement (LAE) displays Lead II (B)The ECG criteria for right atrial enlargement (RAE) displays Lead II (C) In cases of atrial enlargement, the QRS complex in Lead II is significantly widened. (D) The presence of atrial enlargement can lead to a deviation in the axis of the P- wave in Lead II. (E) The sinus node rhythm remains normal.

24. Which of the following statements about the ABO, Rh, and Bombay (hh) blood group systems is incorrect? (A) Individuals with the Bombay blood type do not express the H antigen, which is a precursor for A and B antigens, making them unable to form A or B antigens regardless of their genotype. (B) A person with the Bombay blood type will test as type O in standard ABO testing. (C) An individual with the Bombay blood type can safely receive blood from an ABO type O, Rh-negative donor without any risk of a hemolytic reaction. (D) In the Rh system, Rh-negative individuals do not have the D antigen on their red blood cells and can develop antibodies against Rh-positive blood. (E) People with AB blood type are universal recipients in the ABO system, but their Rh factor still determines compatibility with Rh-positive or Rh-negative blood.

26. Which of the following statements about the etiology and treatment of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) is incorrect? (A) The efficacy of biologic DMARDs (Disease-Modifying Antirheumatic Drugs) in RA treatment is primarily due to their ability to replace damaged joint tissues through regenerative mechanisms. (B) Epigenetic modifications, such as DNA methylation and histone modifications, play a significant role in the pathogenesis of Rheumatoid Arthritis by influencing gene expression related to immune response. (C) The presence of specific autoantibodies, such as rheumatoid factor (RF) and anti-citrullinated protein antibodies (ACPAs), is a key diagnostic marker and plays a role in the pathogenesis of RA. (D) Environmental factors such as smoking and obesity are known to increase the risk of developing RA and can exacerbate the severity of the disease. (E) Gut microbiota dysbiosis has been implicated in the pathogenesis of RA, with certain bacterial species potentially triggering or exacerbating the autoimmune response.

27. Which of the following organelles does not correctly match its membrane structure? (A) Mitochondria - Double membrane. (B) Centrosome - No membrane-bound. (C) Nucleus - Double membrane. (D) Autophagosome - Single membrane. (E) Phagophore - Single-membrane.

28. Which statement incorrectly describes the application of Next-Generation Sequencing (NGS) and Single-cell RNA sequencing (scRNA-seq) technologies? (A) Size selection during library preparation in NGS is crucial for ensuring the uniformity of fragment lengths, which impacts the efficiency and accuracy of sequencing. (B) Fragmentation is not a concern in NGS as modern sequencing technologies can accurately reconstruct entire genomes from small DNA fragments. (C) NGS-based transcriptomic profiling can accurately quantify gene expression levels, but it is unable to capture post-transcriptional modifications such as RNA editing events. (D) scRNA-seq uncovers the dynamics of immune cell activation and differentiation in response to cancer immunotherapy. (E) Both NGS and scRNA-seq are critical in the field of evolutionary editing events.

29. Which of the following statements about the roles of gaseous signaling molecules in various biological processes is incorrect? (A) Nitric oxide (NO) acts as a vasodilator in the cardiovascular system and plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure. (B) Carbon monoxide (CO) is exclusively a toxic byproduct of combustion and has no significant role in cellular signaling or physiological processes. (C) Hydrogen sulfide (H2S) is involved in neuromodulation and has been shown to have protective effects in certain neurodegenerative diseases. (D) In cancer biology, gaseous signaling molecules like NO can influence tumor growth and metastasis by modulating the tumor microenvironment. (E) Gaseous signaling molecules play a role in the immune system, where they can modulate immune responses and inflammation.

30. Which of the following statements about human lung physiology and function is NOT true? (A) Oxyhemoglobin forms carbamino compounds more readily than De- oxygenated hemoglobin. (B) The soluble enzyme carbonic anhydrase II (CAII) plays an important role in CO2 influx and efflux by red blood cells. (C) The meaning of Bohr effect is CO2 reacts with water, forming carbonic acid, which lowers the pH of its surroundings. Low pH decreases the affinity of hemoglobin for O2. (D) In arterial blood, Pco2 is 5.3k Pa (40mmHg). (E) In mixed venous blood, Pco2 is 6.1 kPa (46 mm Hg).

31. Which of the following reaction would favor cellular gluconeogenesis in the fasted state? (A) AMP activates phosphfructokinase 1. (B) Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate activates pyruvate kinase. (C) Acetyl-CoA activates pyruvate carboxylase. (D) NAD+ activates glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase. (E) None of the above.