108年 - 108 台灣聯合大學學士班轉學考：普通生物#99849

1. All organic molecules contain (A) oxygen and carbon. (B) nitrogen and oxygen. (C) hydrogen and oxygen. (D) carbon and nitrogen. (E) hydrogen and carbon.

2. A protein's _______ structure contains helixes and sheets that result from hydrogen bonding between carboxyl and amino groups of the polypeptide chain. (A) primary (B)secondary (C) tertiary (D) quaternary (E) both secondary and quaternary

3. In animal cells, microtubules grow from (A) the plasma membrane. (B) the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope. (C) centrosomes containing centrioles. (D) dimerization centers located throughout the cytosol. (E) the tips of the chromosomes.

4. The nucleus is to eukaryotes as the _______ is to prokaryotes. (A) plasmid (B) RNA strand (C) ribosome (D)nucleoid (E) nucleolus

5. Two "magic" solutions are sold by a research supply company. 'Magic Solution A" promises to extract all proteins, including integral membrane proteins, from the plasma membrane. "Magic Solution B" promises to simply extract all peripherally associated membrane proteins. What is the likely composition of ''Magic Solution A" and 'Magic Solution B'r? (A) "Solution A" and "Solution B" both contain high salt buffers that disrupt hydrogen bonds and ionic interactions (B) "Solution A" and "Solution B" both include membrane solubilizing detergent(s) (C) "Solution A" is a membrane solubilizing detergent, "Solution B" is a high salt buffer that disrupts hydrogen bonds and ionic interactions (D) "Solution A" is a high salt buffer that disrupts hydrogen bonds and ionic interactions, "Solution B" is a membrane solubilizing detergent (E) "Solution A" is a reducing buffer that disrupts disulfide bonds in proteins, "Solution B" is a membrane solubilizing detergent

6. What would be an expected feature of a plasma membrane that had no integral membrane proteins? (A) The membrane would be unable to transport sodium ions (B) The membrane would collapse (C) The membrane would have no fluidity (D) The membrane would have no cholesterol (E) The membrane would not associate with peripheral membrane proteins

7. In the equation, , ATP and heat would be on which side of the reaction? (A) The products because this is an exergonic reaction. (B) The reactants because this is an endergonic reaction. (C) It could appear on either side because this reaction is in equilibrium. (D) The reactants because this is an exergonic reaction. (E) The products because this is an endergonic reaction.

8. How is a gradient of H+ ions formed across the inner mitochondrial membrane? (A) The electron transport chain uses energy from transfer of an electron donated by NADH to pump H across the inner mitochondrial membrane against its electrochemical gradient. (B) ATP synthase generates a H+ gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane. (C) Electrons move fom NADH to a chain of proteins with lower electronegativities. (D) The electron transport chain uses ATP to pump Ht across the inner mitochondria membrane against its electrochemical gradient. (E) The electron transport chain of proteins contains pores that are leaky to H+.

9. When a cell secretes a growth factor that binds to receptors on its own membrane preventing it from proliferating, this is an example of _______. (A) direct intercellular signaling (B) endocrine signaling (C) contact-dependent signaling (D) paracrine signaling (E) autocrine signaling

10. The monomers of DNA and RNA are (A) monosaccharides. (B) nucleotides. (C) bases (D) nucleic acids. (E) pentoses.

11. Why does a DNA strand grow only in the 5' to 3' direction? (A) because DNA polymerases can only add nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing molecule (B) because DNA polymerases can only add nucleotides to the 5' end of the growing molecule (C) because the DNA molecule only unwinds in the 5' to 3' direction (D) because DNA polymerase requires the addition of a starter nucleotide at the 5' end (E) because the 5'-end is capped

12._______ is to transcription as _______ are to translation. (A) RNA spliceosome； ribosomes (B) RNA polymerase； ribosomes (C) Primer, ribozymes (D) DNA polymerase； RNA polymerase (E) DNA polymerase； ribozymes

13. Which sequence of events CORRECTLY describes the initiation and elongation steps of translation in prokaryotic cells?
(1) initiator tRNA binds start codon on mRNA
(2) small ribosomal subunit binds to mRNA
(3) large ribosomal subunit binds
(4) tRNA entry and peptidyl transfer reaction
(5) translocation of ribosome and release of tRNA(A) 1,2,3,4,5(B) 1,2,3,5,4(C) 1,3,2,4,5(D) 2,3,1,5,4(E) 2,1,3,4,5

14. Genes organized into an operon are beneficial to certain bacteria because the operon allows for (A) differential regulation of individual genes that encode proteins with a common function. (B) coordinated regulation of a group of genes that encode proteins with a common function. (C) separate regulation of individual genes that encode proteins with different functions. (D) coordinated regulation of a group of genes that encode proteins with different functions. (E) coordinated regulation of a group of proteins involved in numerous cellular activities.

15. DNA methylation (A) increases transcription. (B) inhibits transcription. (C) increases crossover events. (D) decreases crossover events. (E) increases post-translational modification of proteins.

16. A researcher determined that a strain of E. coli is producing a shortened version of a protein required for glucose metabolism. What type of mutation could be responsible for this shorter than normal protein? (A) nonsense mutation (B) missense mutation (C) silent mutation (D) sense mutation (E) frameshift mutation

17.________ can convert proto-oncogenes into oncogenes. (A) Gene amplifications (B) Retroviral insertions (C) Chromosomal translocations (D) Missense mutations (E) All of these choices are correct

18. Which of the following is NOT a checkpoint that controls the progression of the cell cycle? (A) Cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases are proteins that are responsible for advancing a cell through the phases of the cell cycle. (B) The G2 checkpoint checks for DNA damage and determines if all of the DNA is replicated. (C) The metaphase checkpoint determines if all chromosomes are attached to the spindle apparatus. (D) Cytokinesis involves the formation of cleavage furrow to separate the cells. (E) The restriction point determines if conditions are favorable for cell division and if the DNA is undamaged.

19.Which of the following statements regarding the differences between mitosis and meiosis is false? (A) In meiosis four daughter cells are produced, whereas in mitosis two daughter cells are produced. (B) Cells produced by mitosis are normally diploid, whereas cells produced by meiosis are normally haploid. (C) In mitosis cytokinesis occurs once, whereas in meiosis cytokinesis occurs twice. (D) Crossing over is a phenomenon that happens only in meiosis. (E) In mitosis the chromosomes replicate only once, whereas in meiosis the chromosomes replicate twice.

20. Type 1 fucosidosis is a rare buman disease. Patients cannot hydrolyze the disaccharide fucose, and as a result have severe neurological decline and die by age 6. The disease is due to a defect in the gene that encodes the lysosomal enzyme that breaks down fucose (α-1-fucosidase), and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. Jane and John have a child who has Type 1 fucosidosis. What is the probability that their next two children will all NOT have the disease? (A) None (all of their children will have the disease) (B) 1/2 (C) 3/4 (D) 1/8 (E) 9/16

21. If the recombination frequency between gene A and B is 10 out of 100 offspring, gene A and C is 30 out of 100 offspring, and gene B and C is 40 out of 100 offspring, what is the location of these genes in relation to each other on a chromosome? (A) CAB (B) BAC (C) ABC (D) CBA (E) either CAB or BAC

22. Which of the following phrases INCORRECTLY finishes this statement? Stem cells (A) can undergo mitosis. (B) can differentiate into more than one type of specialized cell. (C) vary in their potency. (D) are only found in embryos. (E) can sometimes only differentiate into one cell type.

23. Survivin is an apoptosis inhibitor in humans. If the survivin gene is mutated so that it produces too much of the survivin protein, which of the following would be the most likely effect on limb formation? (A) Mitosis of the limb bud cells would not occur. (B) Cells would not migrate to their correct position. (C) Cell determination would not occur. (D) Cell differentiation would not occur. (E) Webbing between digits would not be removed.

24. Primers are used in both PCR and in DNA sequencing. What is the purpose of the primers? (A) to separate the DNA template strands. (B) to provide a 3'- OH for DNA polymerase to build a new DNA strand. (C) to terminate synthesis of the growing DNA strand. (D) to separate various-sized DNA products. (E) to add nucleotides to a growing DNA strand.

25. If a plasmid lacks an origin of replication what will happen when it is transformed into bacteria? (A) As the bacteria divide they will lose the plasmid. (B) There will not be regions to clone genes into the plasmid. (C) Bacteria containing the plasmid will not be able to grow in the presence of antibiotics. (D) The plasmid will not be useful in producing a protein because it lacks an RNA polymerase binding site. (E) The plasmid cannot be cut with restriction enzymes.

26. Neurons contain ________ to receive signals, contain ________ to send out signals. (A) axons, dendrites (B) nucleus, axon (C) dendrites, axons (D) axon hillock, axon (E) axon, axon hillock

27. The action potential does not move backward from the terminal to hillock because (A) close of the inactivation gate of channels (B) delayed open of the channels (C) close of the inactivation gate of channels (D) increase of the threshold to induce action potential (E) open of the voltage-gated channels

28. It is correct to say that neural transmission across mammalian synaptic clefts is the result of (A) neural impulses involving the flow of and across the cleft. (B) neural impulses traveling across the gap as electrical currents. (C) neural impulses causing the release of chemicals that diffuse across the cleft. (D) neural impulses traveling across the cleft in both directions. (E) the calcium within the axons and dendrites of nerves adjacent to a synapse acting as the neurotransmitter.